>jpolanik wrote:
>>can nothingness experience afterimages?
>No, but that's not the proper question, which is "Can there be
>experiences (of images or anything else) without experiencers?"
these questions are intimately related; and, both are legitimate.
the moment I notice that I am experiencing something (an afterimage,
say, or whatever), I may legitimately ask 'is it possible that I who
experience this am nothing at all?' and answer 'no' just as you say
above.
>You think the answer to that is obviously, certainly NO. I, on the
>other hand, am content to say that it is evident that there are
>experiencers having these experiences, and not opine on whether it
>could or could not be otherwise. I don't know about that.
okay; you are content with third-person generalities such as "it is
evident that there are experiencers having these experiences". are you
willing to say "I am the experiencer of this experience" or some similar
first-person translation of your third-person statement? if so, what is
the first person translation you are willing to affirm?
>The answer to this question isn't obvious to me, and there have been
>some smart philosophers (like the so-called "neutral monists") who have
>allowed this possibility.
instead of giving us your vague hopes and rumors that some smart
philosopher somewhere supports your viewpoint, I suggest you take take
Manuel's advice to "stand for your own" --- present your own argument.
>>why do you keep dragging Buddhists into this? why would they care
>>one way or the other whether the bundle theory as to the nature of
>>the experiencer was true or false?
>I dragged Buddhists into it because "small raft" (Hinayana) Buddhists
>claim that there is no soul. You used to (like within the last few
>days) insist they were dead wrong about that, and seemed absolutely
>shocked that anybody could believe it. There are a lot of these
>traditional Buddhists, so I brought them into the story to indicate
>that you were saying that millions of people were crazy. Now, that the
>no-soul view one of your favorites, I don't know whether their
>existence is so relevant to the debate.
on at least one previous occasion, you've stated that, even if I were
able to prove that 'I am' is a true statement, little or nothing
followed from that. I have agreed each time; and, I've said it myself on
other occasions: from 'I am' one can not deduce 'I am a neuron' or 'I
am a soul'.
I've also made it clear many times (most recently, a few days ago in a
reply to Georges) that the Experiento argument proves that there is an
I-2, a phenomenological reality.
obviously, your attempt to drag one version of Buddhism into the debate
was a rhetorical strategy based on conflating the experiencer and the
soul --- in terms of subscripted pronouns, you are conflating the I-2
and the I-3.
I'm inclined to think that the question 'is there an I-2' is independent
of the question 'is there an I-3'.
are you now claiming that there is a necessary connection between these
two questions such that, from 'there is an I-2', something *does*
follow?
if so, what follows from 'there is an I-2'?
Joe
--
Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware
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http://what-am-i.net
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