> ===========
>
> I would disagree and stand by my answer above, because he said
> "cash basis" accounting. He has the amount "in hand" and has use
This has nothing to do with accounting. It specifically depends on
the terms of the agreement, and how strong the taxpayer's claim is to
the money in his hand.
If you receive money as a loan, it is not taxed. If you receive
money as a deposit, it is not yours, it has not been earned, and it
has to be paid back (except to the extent that it is earned later).
If the retainer agreement says that the consultant has to return any
money that is not earned, it is no more his than a loan would be. He
is, in effect, taking a possessory security interest in the other
person's money.
Does a pawn shop recognize income at the moment someone drops off
collateral that is worth more than the loan given in exchange? Of
course not - the income is not recognized until either the customer
pays interest or the property is sold to satisfy the lien.
I don't see why it would be any different in this case.
> I would agree with Mr. Bronstein if the taxpayer were "accrual
> basis" (with a set of formal books with which to track the
> retainer). Also typically, retainers are deposited to a separate
> bank account than where gross receipts go. Attorneys use a
> "client trust account" for the purpose of retainers on hand.
--
Stu
http://DownToEarthLawyer.com