My problem: The local newspaper (Kansas City Star) is refusing to run
classifed ads for my customers (or myself). They refuse to say why and
I get the same speech all the way up the management line ("we reserve
the sole right to refuse advertising, and have decided to refuse your
advertising").
Some history:
1. They did allow one of my customers to advertise once, so there is
precedence.
2. They consistently allow other customers to advertise web site
addresses.
3. My site is perfectly legitimate and should not be considered
offensive or illegal in any manner.
My question:
Do I have any legal grounds to force them to allow me and my customers
to advertise in the classifieds?
I'm assuming they think I'm competition (although I've made it clear
that my system depends on the customer continuing to run classified
ads). Please, any suggestions. If I can't get them to allow me to
advertise, it completely changes my business strategy!!
Thanks in advance.
A newspaper has a first amendment right to publish what they want, and
only what they want. They can refuse any ad for any reason or no reason
at all. Your solution: find another newspaper.
Dan Press
Chung & Press, P.C.
McLean, VA
In article <68e470$n...@panix3.panix.com>, dpr...@chung-press.com (Daniel
M. Press) wrote:
>Brenda Mills wrote:
>> ...
>> Do I have any legal grounds to force them to allow me and my customers
>> to advertise in the classifieds?
>
>A newspaper has a first amendment right to publish what they want, and
>only what they want. They can refuse any ad for any reason or no reason
>at all. Your solution: find another newspaper.
Is it really that simple? Certainly they have very wide discretion
(perhaps absolute discretion, though I shy away from absolutes) in the
editorial pages.
But the classified ads are quite clearly _not_ endorsed by the newspaper.
They are paid by the word. Absent anything fraudulent or obscene, does
the newspaper really have the right to refuse a paid ad? If so, please
cite the applicable statute or decision.
--
Stan Brown, Oak Road Systems, Cleveland, Ohio, USA
http://www.concentric.net/%7eBrownsta/
"If you have nothing to say, say nothing." --Yes, Prime Minister
However there is a conflicting (Supreme?) court decision from
about the 1950s. Then, some newspapers refused to accepts ads
from businesses that also advertised on the radio. So this is
somewhat different, but related, to your case. Nevertheless, this
practice was ruled illegal.
--- Wm. Randolph U Franklin, WRFUSE at MAB.ECSE.RPI.DELETETHIS.EDU
It is my understanding that the "equal access" laws relate only to
FCC-regulated media (radio, TV), and that no such law applies to print
media. (Indeed, I think it would be plainly unconstitutional as
applied to print media.)
--
"I think of it as a party held in very very large house. In one room people
are drinking espresso and discussing translations of Rilke, while in another
they're sucking nitrous out of a garbage bag and setting fire to a couch."
- Tom Fawcett (faw...@nynexst.com) on Usenet || Mark Eckenwiler e...@panix.com
>I recently set up a business that creates web pages for customers that
>want to sell real estate, cars, or personal property. In my advertising,
>I recommend that the customer advertise in the local newspaper using
>their web site address that I have assigned them . For example, they may
>advertise: 4 BR, 3 BA, $200,000, more info at www.soldfast.com/aa2.html.
>When you type in that address, it goes right to their page.
>My problem: The local newspaper (Kansas City Star) is refusing to run
>classifed ads for my customers (or myself). They refuse to say why and I
>get the same speech all the way up the management line ("we reserve the
>sole right to refuse advertising, and have decided to refuse your
>advertising").
Well, Dan is right that an advertiser doesn't need to accept all
advertising, but in the housing market, there are some EEO regulations and
Fair Housing laws which at least require them to refuse some types of ads
which violate those guidelines. Maybe somehow they think your ads might
expose them to those rules.
+----------------------------------------------+
|--William D. Marvin, Esq. ++ wdm...@ibm.net--|
|---------Abington, PA (215) 881-9488---------|
|-visit Philadelphia Trial Lawyers on the Web -|
+---------- http://philatla.org ---------------+
: However there is a conflicting (Supreme?) court decision from
: about the 1950s. Then, some newspapers refused to accepts ads
: from businesses that also advertised on the radio. So this is
: somewhat different, but related, to your case. Nevertheless, this
: practice was ruled illegal.
I think you are think of the LA Times-Picayune case (1953), an antitrust
case where the court said that the T-P could indeed force persons who
bought advertising in the evening paper if they wanted to advertise in the
morning paper. The case is not on point and the facts as the poster
presents them (the KC Star refusing to sell him advertising space) pose no
antitrust questions.
Incidentally in another post on this thread someone mentions the fairness
doctrine. This is triply inapplicable. It held only for broadcasting, where
first amendment protections are lower than for print media because
broadcasting spectra are scarce and broadcasting is uniquely pervasive.
The Court struck down a state fairness doctrine law for print media in the
late 70s and early 80s as violative of the first amendment. The FD applied
only to political statements on the broadcast media and not to commercial
advertising. And the FD has been repealed as of, I think, 1986.
--Justin S.
A Florida statute attempting to impose a fairness-style doctrine on
newspapers was struck down, I believe.
Ironically, the Supreme Court's reasoning for permitting an abridgement of
speech with respect to radio and TV -- the limited number of outlets --
is far more applicable to the print media in the 1990's than to the
multitude of television and radio stations.
The Fairness Doctrine, when it was in play, had the effect of reducing
political discussion on television and radio, rather than risk opening up
scads of valuable air-time to every nutter with an opposing view; I
believe it is no longer in effect, as such.
--
You're just a drifter who found a bag of mail.
http://www.radix,net/~moe
>>
>>A newspaper has a first amendment right to publish what they want, and
>>only what they want. They can refuse any ad for any reason or no reason
>>at all. Your solution: find another newspaper.
>Is it really that simple? Certainly they have very wide discretion
>(perhaps absolute discretion, though I shy away from absolutes) in the
>editorial pages.
>But the classified ads are quite clearly _not_ endorsed by the newspaper.
> They are paid by the word. Absent anything fraudulent or obscene, does
>the newspaper really have the right to refuse a paid ad? If so, please
>cite the applicable statute or decision.
As another poster mentioned, perhaps when newspapers jointly act to
restrict competition, there is a possibility of an antitrust violation.
But you're asking the wrong question when you ask for a cite.
The "default setting" under both the First Amendment and basic
principles of contract law is that a publisher has no obligation to print
anything or to enter into a contract. There must be a statute to change
that result, as with the antitrust laws, or anti-discrimination laws. In
other words, I doubt if a paper could decide to refuse all advertising
from black-owned funeral homes.
It's the prospective advertiser which must show some legal authority
which restricted the newspaper's freedom of choice to decline the ad. The
paper does not have to justify its business decision.
DISCLAIMER:
These comments are not legal opinion or advice, but are offered only for
the purpose of discussion. Do not rely on them for your personal or
business affairs. You should not depend on any legal opinion except from
your own attorney. Your own attorney will know all the pertinent facts,
knows what law to apply, and has a professional duty to you.
+----------------------------------------------+ |--William D. Marvin,
Esq. ++ wdm...@ibm.net--|
|---------Abington, PA (215) 881-9488---------|
|-visit Philadelphia Trial Lawyers on the Web -|
+---------- http://philatla.org ---------------+
!fortune.tag
Yes, it is. The fairness doctrine *used to* apply to FCC licensees: TV
and radio broadcasters. It has been effectively repealed there, and was
of questionable constitutionality (it was upheld in the Red Lion case
based on the scarcity of the airwaves and their being a public trust),
but it NEVER applied to newspapers, which are not licensed and not
public trusts. A newspaper is the private property of its publisher,
who can say what he/she/it wants, and can refuse to say whatever he
wants, whether or not someone wants to pay him to say it.
But commercial speech is given less protection than
> political. And in essence it would seem to me you are placing the
> papers commercial speech rights against your own. They have no
> obligation to publish your ads.
Correct, but COMPELLED commercial speech infringes the right not to
speak, which is not subject to diminished constitutional protection.
You can be told by the government what you cannot say in an ad, but you
can't be forced to say something you don't want to.
...
>
> I believe though there are cases where if a paper is the only real public media
> in a community they cannot reject ads comparable to others they have carried.
Nope. Not a one. The solution if there is only one paper is to open
another one.