What I am talking about here is the idea of a fundamental substance/energy/force/will/'X' call it whatever which grounds everything--literally everything. But the main point is that this fundamental 'X' is entirely undifferentiated and undifferntiatable. Or maybe another way to say it is that it is an 'X' that is an undivided unity. There would be nothing that the fundamental 'X' contained which was in any way distinguishable from any other part of it. I am at a total loss to understand how something of that nature could ever produce the diversity and multiplicity that we see, even if it is doing so only in a phenomenal form. I just don't get how that which is undivided unity could do or become in phenomena anything at all.
Horn 2 of the tetralemma is where I could use some clarification. This horn states that there is “ultimately only form.” What Scott goes on to say is,
“This would mean that an observer, when they finally come into existence, is just another such object. This raises the question of how one object can be aware of another object. An observing object must somehow connect each element of the observed form into a whole. But if the observing object is itself nothing but a set of parts, where can it "put", so to speak, these connections?”
These remarks seem to mean that a fundamental
formlessness or “ultimate formlessness” must be posited in order to account for ourselves as an experiencing subject.
In this second horn awareness of objects suddenly enters the argument. Is the following anywhere along the lines of what horn two is getting at: That “form” alone or "pure form" is closed upon itself, or maybe you could say so full and complete in itself that the very concept of “form” does not allow for the possibility of experience? The argument seems to be that since there is experience, this very experience itself is the proof that fundamental reality cannot be form alone? This is another version of saying that positing pure form is just as incoherent and inaccessible as positing pure formlessness? This would also imply that (as an impossible hypothetical) were awareness/consciousness not a possible part of reality, then, in theory, pure form alone could be, in such a case, the ultimate basis of reality. The same could be said for pure formlessness. But because we know that awareness is possible, we cannot posit either.
Horn two made me think of Sartre’s dichotomy in Being and Nothingness, his idea that if the subject is fully equal to, or to put it another way, if the subject is of exactly the same nature as "being"--- that which the subject experiences---then that subject would never be able to be aware of being because the subject would just be more "being". In Being and Nothingness Sartre has written seemingly paradoxical or mystical sounding things like, “I am the self which I will be, in the mode of not being it.” My takeaway is that there must be some kind of separation from that which we are [“are”, or, to put it in other words, our experiences of objects] in order for us to have an experience at all.
Horn three enters into a claim about the interdependence of the fundamental concepts. And really, that's what I am understanding the takeaway of this draft to be about: interdependence. Not of two separate entities nor of one single entity. Clearly one must be so careful here to even describe such a thing. As the essay states,
I read the draft of Tetralemmic Polarity, and I also read through some of the posts made under that topic. I hope it will be okay to post my comments and questions about the draft here instead of under the other discussion.
If I may ask whether I am understanding the basics of the draft properly:The first horn of the tetralemma I believe that I understand perfectly, since it states a version of what led to my initial difficulty. To say that there is “ultimately only formlessness” is the same as saying that there is fundamentally only unity.
Horn 2 of the tetralemma is where I could use some clarification. This horn states that there is “ultimately only form.” What Scott goes on to say is,
“This would mean that an observer, when they finally come into existence, is just another such object. This raises the question of how one object can be aware of another object. An observing object must somehow connect each element of the observed form into a whole. But if the observing object is itself nothing but a set of parts, where can it "put", so to speak, these connections?”
These remarks seem to mean that a fundamental formlessness or “ultimate formlessness” must be posited in order to account for ourselves as an experiencing subject.
In this second horn awareness of objects suddenly enters the argument. Is the following anywhere along the lines of what horn two is getting at: That “form” alone or "pure form" is closed upon itself, or maybe you could say so full and complete in itself that the very concept of “form” does not allow for the possibility of experience?
The argument seems to be that since there is experience, this very experience itself is the proof that fundamental reality cannot be form alone?
This is another version of saying that positing pure form is just as incoherent and inaccessible as positing pure formlessness?
This would also imply that (as an impossible hypothetical) were awareness/consciousness not a possible part of reality, then, in theory, pure form alone could be, in such a case, the ultimate basis of reality. The same could be said for pure formlessness. But because we know that awareness is possible, we cannot posit either.
Horn two made me think of Sartre’s dichotomy in Being and Nothingness, his idea that if the subject is fully equal to, or to put it another way, if the subject is of exactly the same nature as "being"--- that which the subject experiences---then that subject would never be able to be aware of being because the subject would just be more "being". In Being and Nothingness Sartre has written seemingly paradoxical or mystical sounding things like, “I am the self which I will be, in the mode of not being it.” My takeaway is that there must be some kind of separation from that which we are [“are”, or, to put it in other words, our experiences of objects] in order for us to have an experience at all.
Horn three enters into a claim about the interdependence of the fundamental concepts. And really, that's what I am understanding the takeaway of this draft to be about: interdependence. Not of two separate entities nor of one single entity. Clearly one must be so careful here to even describe such a thing. As the essay states,
"The first observation to make is that there is no denying that tetralemmic polarity cannot be understood, in the usual meaning of the term "understand"."
How do you "understand" the force or movement which results from an interdependency? It seems that this interdependency claim really stretches the limits of conceivabilty. Does it exceed the limits of conceivability?
Someone else remarked about the Indians boiling things down to that which is inconceivable, but I think that we need to be able to conceive or else the whole thing is as useless as that which is postulated in horn 4 of the tetralemma.
If I am in fact understanding these basics correctly... Well, for one thing, it would mean that Schopenhauer is wrong when he states outright that Will contains no multiplicity. What I do need is to think more about how I would conceptualize this movement resulting from an interdependency. But if you wouldn't mind letting me know if I am even on the right track?