Hi Kunhao,
As stated by `zncrng`, ( Z/nZ `5 ) is already the ring itself, so
you can work within the ring Y = ( Z/nZ `5 ), and with its
multiplicative inverse operation I = ( invr ` Y ).
The elements of that ring are not exactly the integers, they are equivalence classes, so your final statement will rather look like
( I ` [ 3 ] R ) = [ 2 ] R
Where R is the underlying equivalence relation.
I hope this puts you on the track!
BR,
_
Thierry
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Hi again,
Spoiler, I tried to do the proof, you can check the attachment
if, but only if, you need some inspiration ;-)
(I also wanted to be extra sure that my formalization was
correct!)
PS. Re-reading your original mail, I see you were looking for the
base of ( Z/nZ ), the relevant theorem is ~znbas, which shows that
the base you need is the quotient set.
To view this discussion on the web visit https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/metamath/2a25c673-3780-b43c-8ad2-15ccd04322dc%40gmx.net.
One more question somehow irrelevant: While I was jumping around different pages of metamath, I found some of definitions (df-mulr) is like .r = Slot 3, do you know what it means by Slot?