heiph...@wilsonb.com
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Hello,
The logical hypothesis for theorem oveq2i has the same name as that for oveq1i. This tripped me up, but is the naming intentional?
In particular, I was writing up my own proof of 2p2e4 when I noticed the clash. In fact, the proof of 2p2e4 exhibits the same exact issue: the first unification is oveq1i.1=df-2, which is followed by it's parent eqtr4i.1=oveq2i. Given that 2p2e4 is used as an pedagogical example in MPE, I feel like I must just be missing something obvious.
Just in case, I also confirmed the above against HEAD on the develop branch (commit 2ebe15d3 at the time).
Forgive the spam if I am just overlooking something
Cheers,
B. Wilson