ax-1 $a |- ( ph -> ( ps -> ph ) ) $.
ax-2 $a |- ( ( ph -> ( ps -> ch ) ) -> ( ( ph -> ps ) -> ( ph -> ch ) ) ) $.
ax-3 $a |- ( ( -. ph -> -. ps ) -> ( ps -> ph ) ) $.
${
ax-gen.1 $e |- ph $.
ax-gen $a |- A. x ph $.
$}
ax-4 $a |- ( A. x ( ph -> ps ) -> ( A. x ph -> A. x ps ) ) $.
${
$d x ph $.
ax-5 $a |- ( ph -> A. x ph ) $.
$}
${
$d x y $.
ax6v $a |- -. A. x -. x = y $.
$}
ax-7 $a |- ( x = y -> ( x = z -> y = z ) ) $.
${
$d x y $. $d y ph $.
ax12v $a |- ( x = y -> ( ph -> A. x ( x = y -> ph ) ) ) $.
$}
The question is whether the following statement can be proved from the above axioms:
${
$d x y z $.
ax8vvv $p |- ( x = y -> ( x e. z -> y e. z ) ) $= ? $.
$}
I named the statement ax8vvv since it's just a version of
ax-8 with all setvars disjoint from one another. Of course, we are allowed to use the syntactic statement wel $a wff x e. y $.
A few years ago, Benoît
published a paper showing that the full
ax-8 (without DV conditions) is independent of the above axioms, and that the weaker
ax8v is independent as well (appendix B.9). We know that
ax-8 can be recovered from
ax8v1 and
ax8v2, as shown in the proof of
ax8.
However, the question of whether ax8vvv is provable in
set.mm is not mentioned. This made me wonder whether the reason is that the answer is obvious (and I missed it), or not known.
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Since I'm trying to get familiar with MM0/MM1, I'm going to restate the question in that language and ask whether it's formalized correctly:
delimiter $ ( ) ~ { } $;
strict provable sort wff;
term wi (ph ps: wff): wff; infixr wi: $->$ prec 25;
term wn (ph: wff): wff; prefix wn: $~$ prec 40;
axiom ax_1 (ph ps: wff): $ ph -> ps -> ph $;
axiom ax_2 (ph ps ch: wff): $ (ph -> ps -> ch) -> (ph -> ps) -> ph -> ch $;
axiom ax_3 (ph ps: wff): $ (~ph -> ~ps) -> ps -> ph $;
axiom ax_mp (ph ps: wff): $ ph $ > $ ph -> ps $ > $ ps $;
pure sort set;
term wal {x: set} (ph: wff x): wff; prefix wal: $A.$ prec 30;
axiom ax_gen {x: set} (ph: wff x): $ ph $ > $ A. x ph $;
axiom ax_4 {x: set} (ph ps: wff x): $ A. x (ph -> ps) -> A. x ph -> A. x ps $;
axiom ax_5 {x: set} (ph: wff): $ ph -> A. x ph $;
term weq (a b: set): wff; infixl weq: $=s$ prec 50;
term wel (a b: set): wff; infixl wel: $es.$ prec 40;
def wex {x: set} (ph: wff x): wff = $ ~(A. x ~ph) $;
prefix wex: $E.$ prec 30;
axiom ax_6 {x: set} (a: set): $ E. x x =s a $;
axiom ax_7 (a b c: set): $ a =s b -> a =s c -> b =s c $;
axiom ax_12 {x y: set} (ph: wff y): $ A. y ph -> A. x (x =s y -> ph) $;
theorem ax8vv {a b c: set}: $ a =s b -> a es. c -> b es. c $= '( _ );
Most of the above formalization is borrowed from set.mm0. I noticed that ax_12 in set.mm0 differs from ax12v in set.mm, which I assume is by design. I haven't checked whether the two versions are equivalent, but I see that peano.mm0 uses the set.mm version of ax12v, so I guess either one can be used?