A few comments (some passages snipped)
On 12-Dec-09 18:13:34, Peter Flom wrote:
> Hi John
> [...]
> I agree that one shouldn't change one's notion of what is an important
> effect size.
>
> But here are two examples of what I am talking about:
> 1) Some doctors have a theory about a rare disease; there is not good
> data about the theory they have. They gather retrospective information
> on a small number of people at their hospital who have the disease.
> They come to me for a "power analysis" and I tell them that with N = 12
> (or whatever) the effect would have to be HUGE for it to be sig. BUT,
> I say, you can get an estimate of effect size. This is news to them.
> They believe that if an effect is not sig, it doesn't exist.
>
> (Based on my experience at a large hosptial/med school, doctors get
> VERY little training about statistics)
The above reflects on the common diversity of opinion about the
meaning of "significance". In a lot of everyday speech (and in much
Press reporting) "significant" means "an effect big enough to take
notice of". In statistician-speak, it means that the study yielded
enough evidence to establish (at the token significance level)
that there was indeed an effect (never mind how big it is), and
"not significant" means that there wasn't enough evidence. So you
can find statements like "the mortality rate amongst users of X
did not differ significantly from non-users" presented as though
the difference doesn't matter, preactically speaking.
The statistical meaning then triggers more language: A "significant"
result can be expressed as "The Null Hypothesis was rejected
[at the stated significance level, i.e. there was that amount of
evidence against the NH]". In researcher-speak, the "[...]" is
quite often left out, forgotten about, or not known in the first place.
And then a non-significant result is intepreted as "The NH was not
rejected", so "we tested the NH and it passed the test", i.e. there
was no effect!
The problem is that there are many different linguistic communities
out there, and varying degrees of adherence to logical thought
(in the Formal Logic, i.e. Propositional Logic, sense).
Across-the-desk education (such as Peter Flom does with his doctors)
can help to bring these things to the surface and spread understanding;
but one would expect that journal editors, sponsors, Ethics Committees
and so forth, should also be able to spell it out when they see people
in this kind of muddle (always presuming that they can perceive it).
So: can they? Do they?
#############################################################
In a preceding mail, Marc Schwarz wrote:
> If I am correctly understanding your context Peter, this is the
> reason that small pilot studies are performed. They are not
> intended to achieve statistical significance, but only to enable
> a reasonable estimate of those factors that are relevant to designing
> the subsequent powered study, where there is no a priori data
> available otherwise.
>
> However, it is made clear at the outset that the study is a pilot
> and there is not a powered hypothesis expressed in the protocol.
> That is a different context than using a powered study, having
> it fail, performing your Fisher's post mortem and using that data
> to design the next "improved" study.
This seems to imply that, officially, the pilot study has no
evidential status with respect to the objective of the trial,
being carried out in order to establish the "ball-park" of the
parameters of the situation. But then: suppose the pilot study
happened to result in highly significant evidence for a large
effect? It could happen! And the study may well (indeed should)
have been carried out with the same rigorous control of procedure
(selection of subjects, randomisation and so forth) as a "real"
("powered") study, except that it didn't go through the phase of
a power calculation (which is one of the stages officially expected
in a "real" study). So: is it valid, or invalid, as "proof" of
the existence of an effect?
Just a few thoughts ...
Ted.
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Date: 12-Dec-09 Time: 20:19:32
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