It might be, but it's unlikely to be the case in any interesting scenario. For example, a constant function is convex / g-convex in any Riemannian metric. But more generally, even in one dimension (f from R to R), you can imagine distorting the metric on R in such a way that f fails to be g-convex in the new metric. It's still invex though, because critical points etc. are independent on the choice of metric, so you'll preserve the property that critical points are optimal.
is a convex function on a eucledian space still 'geodesically convex' on a Riemannian manifold?
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