Since you got no responses, I'll put my 2 cents, hoping that more
knowledgeable people jump in.
As I understand it, it makes sense that the (empirical) FDR does not
strictly correlate with P-value. This FDR is not a simple multiple test
correction. It is the "real" P-value (or Q-value), because it tells the
user what are the real odds of finding the experimental peaks just by
chance.
The solution for the lack of reads is only obtaining more reads. If
you get 100% FDR, it means that just with input you could get those
peaks, i.e. the sample is not enriched. When the sample is good, peaks
with much less than 100% FDR will be found in abundance.