"th" sounds in Lojban

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Greendogo

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Apr 20, 2011, 2:35:53 AM4/20/11
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Hey, I was wondering how someone would write the "th" sounds of "then"
and "thin" (respectively) in Lojbanic orthography without substituting
the ' (h sound).

I wish someone had taken into account that "th" sounds are very
beautiful.

Personally, my orthography would have used "x" for the "th" sound in
"thin" and "dx" for the "th" sound in "then". I would have then used
"h" for the guttural sound that "x" is now used for.

I don't know why, but the two "th" sounds are probably my favorite
sounds that the human mouth can produce.

Ian Johnson

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Apr 20, 2011, 9:14:49 AM4/20/11
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They're not morphologically permitted, because so few languages have them. If you want to make them, you're going to have to do it inside ZOI.

mu'o mi'e .latros.


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Ian Johnson

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Apr 20, 2011, 9:15:20 AM4/20/11
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(I may have misunderstood your question, though.)

.arpis.

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Apr 20, 2011, 11:56:12 AM4/20/11
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Continuing what {latros} said, your question is similar to asking, "How would you write the 'th' in Russian?"
--
mu'o mi'e .arpis.

Alessandro "Jake Dust" Andrioni

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Apr 20, 2011, 12:03:20 PM4/20/11
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(or in Portuguese, in German, in Spanish, in Italian, in Polish, in
Mandarin, in Hebrew, in French, in Hindi, etc)

Jameson Orndorff

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Apr 20, 2011, 12:06:24 PM4/20/11
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The "th" in "thin" is a valid pronunciation of {'}.

mi'e .kribacr.

.arpis.

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Apr 20, 2011, 12:07:56 PM4/20/11
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But the converse isn't true.  {'} is not a valid way of writing "th" as in "thin".

Krzysztof Sobolewski

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Apr 20, 2011, 12:53:03 PM4/20/11
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Dnia środa, 20 kwietnia 2011 o 08:35:53 Greendogo napisał(a):

> I wish someone had taken into account that "th" sounds are very
> beautiful.

Matter of opinion. For me it sounds like spitting and I don't like to be spat on ;)
--
Ecce Jezuch
"How can I respect your crime
When all you criminals whine?" - P. Keenan

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Pierre Abbat

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Apr 20, 2011, 12:56:44 PM4/20/11
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On Wednesday 20 April 2011 12:03:20 Alessandro "Jake Dust" Andrioni wrote:
> (or in Portuguese, in German, in Spanish, in Italian, in Polish, in
> Mandarin, in Hebrew, in French, in Hindi, etc)

Castilian Spanish has a phoneme /θ/ which is written "z" or, before "e"
or "i", "c". Andalusian and American Spanishes have merged this phoneme
with /s/, though it is still distinct in morphology, in particular the "zc"
alterations of some 2nd and 3rd conjugation verbs. [ð] occurs in Spanish as
an allophone of /d/, and maybe in Castilian of /θ/ (both "z" nor "s" have
voiced allophones, but I've never been in Castile to hear how they pronounce,
e.g., "liderazgo" versus "liderad go...").

Some Hebrew dialects have [θ] and [ð] as morpho-allophones of /t/ and /d/,
distinguished in writing by the lack of a dagesh. Ashkenazis pronounce this
allophone as [s], saying e.g. "Shabbos".

Pierre
--
.i toljundi do .ibabo mi'afra tu'a do
.ibabo damba do .ibabo do jinga
.icu'u la ma'atman.

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