Re: MAIL FROM ESAKKIAPPAN

[esakki appan]

For example , Z^2+Z=0 for this eqn Z=0 is the  zero of the eqn.

Z^2-Z=0 for this eqn Z=1 is the Zero. In Riemann hypothesis, we are getting zero for negative integers. Then why we call these are trivial zero?.

On Sat, Mar 30, 2024, 17:27 esakki appan <tes...@gmail.com> wrote:

Dear Professor,

              I am Esakkiappan from India. I have seen your video about Riemann hypothesis. I have few questions.

 1) Why Zeta used for this function instead of f(z).

2) why we are using two different zeros trivial and non trivial in Riemann hypothesis?. Can you explain me ?

3) Why L functions?

      Could you help me to answer these questions?

           Thank you.

              I 

[esakki appan]

[David W. Farmer]

This is not the appropriate forum for discussing the Riemann Hypothesis
and basic notions of analytic number theory.

You may find information you are looking for on Math Overflow
https://mathoverflow.net/search?q=trivial+zeros

or on Math Stack Exchange
https://math.stackexchange.com/search?q=trivial+zeros

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