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Oh dear, Julian, interesting article, but I confess to not having read it carefully, the reason being he does not seem to have a clear understanding of what the "the rule of law" is, and does not cite reconised luminaries on the subject (esp. Dicey, Jennings, Voet, Grotius, Epstein etc).
Starting with a false premise if a classic red herring: "What's wrong with Milton Friedman (or Hayek or Rothbard or Rand or Glenister) is that they're against love", followed by debunking And then debunk them by arguing the virtues of love.Since there is such confusion, even amongst so-called experts, I summarise what the Rule of Law (RoL) is.It's a very simple idea, that rights and duties are determined "by law not man".
For that to be the case, the RoL (according to the doyen of the concept, Dicey) requires three basic institutions (which essentially restate the concept in other words):
- Separation of Powers -- legislators legislate, the executive executes, the judiciary adjudicates.
(There ar various reasons why this is derivative of the above concept, but this is not a treatise of the subject -- no executive or administrative "tribunals", for instance, such as the CCMA, Competition Commission or Consumer Court.)- Non-discretion -- ie objective criteria, and, if there is discretion, stated/quantified objectives.
(This is obvious; the meaning of being ruled by law, not man. This is all he seems to think there is to the RoL.)- Certainty -- ie law to be unambiguous, non-subjective, non-retroactive.
(The idea is that it should be easy to know with certainty in advance whether what you're doing is lawful.)
Libertarians should note, as Hayek explained, that the RoL is not liberty -- it is not, as many seem to think, a synonym for liberty -- it just makes liberty more probable. It does not, for instance, preclude tax (or other forms of government theft, such as nationalisation), nor does it pro- or anti-death penalty, or even pro-democracy. The RoL can apply under any political system, with any economic policy, and with social engineering.
"also vehemently opposed to women's suffrage, proportional representation (whilst acknowledging that the existing first-past-the-post system was not perfect), and to the notion that citizens have the right to ignore unjust laws. Dicey viewed the necessity of establishing a stable legal system as more important than the potential injustice that would occur from following unjust laws."
.Hasnas' argument is that the above features are all illusions, or at least the gulf between reality and the ideal is so gigantic (even in the best cases/countries) that it renders the RoL concept meaningless for practical purposes. For example, I will laugh scornfully at anyone who tries to claim that there is a material Separation of Powers in South Africa or the USA. There is certainly no Certainty in law. Human social life is so complex and ever-changing that complete legal codification for every situation is impossible; interpretation by lawyers, juries and judges.
Ah yes, I agree that countries with higher RoL scores are generally more free and prosperous (setting aside the problems of measurement and definition and so forth). But I contend that THE BELIEF in THE MYTH of the Rule of Law actually makes liberty much less probable. A society that believes this myth is forever on the slippery slope to tyranny. A civilised society that rejects this RoL fantasy will be much more resistant to creeping statism.
Hasnas' main point is that faith in RoL provides us with false comfort (not unlike religious myths), and in doing so imprisons us in the statist paradigm. Countries with higher RoL are better than ones with less, but this is a seriously sub-optimal 'local maxima'. If we had free-market-law societies to include in the analysis, high-RoL countries would look very unfree indeed. RoL is second gear - to shift into 3rd (i.e. beginnings of truly free society) we first need to forcefully pull the gear stick away from this dead-end notion. This is all explained better by Hasnas anyway.
I did not read the two academic papers that Julian attached to get
this thread rolling, but I did read in considerable detail and with
equal application the paper he circulated some months ago on the same
subject that had beeen written by a profesor of law at an Americal
college not known to me. I thought that the argument presented in
that paper was untenable. His principal premise was that meaning
(language) is always indeterminate. According to him, there can never
be and there never will be any mutually agreed meaning arising from
language. This struck me as being not just a weak argument, but also
contradictory to his own claims, for if meaning is always
indeterminate, how would you ever express the view that meaning was
always indeterminate? The view subverts his entire project and
argument, and one wonders why - his premise being correct - he could
commit himself to the contradictory exercise of writing a long,
detailed and abstruse paper on the subject, presumably with a view to
persuading people to his point of view. In the second place, he argues
that we are all always and universally captive to explicit and
implicit factors affecting our judgment. An explicit view might be my
declared preference for capital punishment, or for forgiveness. An
implicit factor would be that a 60 year old white well-off male is
bound to have a set of values and to be possessed by presumptions
different from a 25 year old black female factory worker. If he is
right about this, then I can't see how any one system of justice that
depended on the formation of human judgments could ever be better than
any other system of justice. The case law examples adduced in the
original paper I read were very carefully chosen to support the
learned professor's argument - drawn from areas in law widely agreed
to be subject to bias, eg.the legality or otherwise of affirmative
action, and I thought that all that these examples proved is that
there is good law and bad law, and law based on achieving social
engineering outcomes is bad law. I concur that state juridicial
systems have invariably instutionalised all that is bad about grossly
unfair, unequal and class and gender based societies. I agree that
travesties have been legion, and in a human world, this will continue
to be the case. People should live defensively, and we should all be
aware that if we fall victim to crime, the likelihood of redress is
slight. At the same time, I think the aspiration to create for
ourselves societies in which we are all subject to the same law which
gets applied with all the sense of fairness and objectivity we as
human beings are capable of is an ennobling aspiration achieved in
sufficient cases to encourage me to the view that the aspiration is
realisable. After all, there were a significant number of white, male,
Afrikaans judges who regularly handed down humane judgments that
enfuriated their political bosses.
Colin Bower.
@Garth, the introductory anarcho-capitalist material that I've read convincingly addresses all these issues raised below, to my mind at least. What AnCap books and articles have you read? I want to get an idea of where you're coming from.
Regarding your behavioural economics critique, I am of the firm opinion that private policing would be much less conflict-ridden. Conflict is expensive, and private parties will try and reduce it.
Furthermore, any behavioural economist worth his salt could show that an "independent judiciary who looks after the abstract ideals" has very poor incentives to generate good judgements that are satisfactory for the parties of disputes.
Quality of life in Western democracies has clearly been improving thanks to extraordinary advances in science and technology. There is a good chance that this has masked the decrease in individual liberty. At the very least, government/legal technology has remained almost static for hundreds of years. Watch Patri Friedman's talks or delve into the competitive governance blogs / literature to see what I'm talking about.
> I finally read through the John Hasnas article and I must say it is
> extremely good and wholly convincing. I still think you need some kind
> of court of final appeal and I am still very skeptical of a free
> market in police.
Having admittedly not read any of the material, I'm also skeptical
of the latter - I don't like the idea of poor people being left with
no policing / recourse to justice. I suppose from a pure liberty
perspective I can sort of see that one might argue that they aren't
entitled to such, but then what, just leave them to their own
devices? Hope that someone will charitably pay for their policing
services? It's not clear to me.
> But that law is never neutral and objective is not really such a
> startling claim, is it? What is more entertaining is observing what
> John Hasnas called a type of doublethink: that while recognising that
> law is inherently political - as most people do - they can
> simultaneously hold to the belief that theirs is - or at least can be
> - a society governed by laws and not men.
That's why the answer is to turn all final moral and legal decisions
to a super-intelligent Artificially Intelligent robot, as soon as we
invent such. (To be clear, I mean that tongue-in-cheek, but also as
a sort of thought experiment; I have this idea that it should be
theoretically possible, but that's probably tangential.)
> Well, not if we recognise that cooperation does not depend on legal
> finality in the Platonic sense, but simply on realistic legal finality
> (Long, Market Anarchism as Constitutionalism:145). Legal finality in
> the Platonic sense is about arriving at unchallengeable conclusions of
> legal disputes - an impossible feat. Realistic legal finality, on the
> other hand, is about arriving at mutually acceptable conclusions of
> legal disputes. As long as all parties to a dispute abide by its
> settlement, even though it can still be challenged in a technical
> sense, there is law and there is order.
"Abide by" and "mutually acceptable" are not the same things though.
E.g. a convicted murderer "abides by" a prison term because he is
forced to do so, not (in most cases anyway) because he regards it as
"mutually acceptable". Murder is of course a bit of an 'obvious'
case, but the principle applies to more ambiguous cases too. Or am I
missing some obvious point here.