ZEV:
3 issues. first. it is most certainly conjugatable. in addition to the
examples in hebrew texts (aside from numerous aramaic texts of course)
given already, there is also 14th c. meir ibn adlabi in sheviley
emunah (preface): ki me-sefarim yekarim hibartim u-me-leshonot zarim
tirgamtim (i haven't seen this inside, but it is cited in ben yehuda's
entry for tirgem, vol. 8, pp. 7898-99). jastrow btw says its related
to (or derived from?) RGM. secondly, is tirgum pre-ben yehuda? i have
no idea, even ben yehuda doesn't cite it (tur sinai, who completed the
dictionary, does; as an aside, ben yehuda's dictionary wasn't
comprehensive and lacks even his own neologisms). but so whaat, there
are many, many words (probably the vast majority) that aren't fully
conjugated or declined (or suffixed/prefixed) in hebrew literature
(certainly so if one restricts to tanakh itself), so are you saying
that unattested forms that follow standard patters are illegitimate?
finally, how do you define a "real" hebrew word. you note that we
don't know of example before the 20th c. so if we find an example from
1901 it means nothing, but if from 1899 then it is a "real" hebrew
word? or does it have to be from 1799? 1099? 99? i don't have a good
answer to this question myself and i find myself appalled at the heavy
use of english words in contemporary hebrew, for example. but what
makes a word a "real" hebrew word?
kol tuv,
ari