Hi MIchael
So far as I'm concerned this is an error, as it completely changes p'shat from "her husband" to "a woman".
I had to speak to someone last week, and this time he was polite: I told him that the "yod" made the translation "her husband", and that's when the mappik is included.
Kind regards
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The question (I think) is whether this constitutes an error if the congregation (or minyan, if we’re discussing teens) generally ignores the distinctions between mappik and non-mappik heh, and between a chirik with and without a yod.
Meyer Shields, FCAS
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I don't have to live in Israel to flip: I'm inundated here in blighty, whenever I hear an Israeli/Ivrit speaker.
Sorrowfully
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Jeremy
----- Original Message -----
From: Nehemiah Klein <kle...@gmail.com>
Date: Wednesday, July 14, 2010 8:06 am
Subject: Re: [leining] Correcting the Mapik Hey
To: lei...@googlegroups.com
> The "yod" is one of the many travesties of modern Israeli Hebrew that
> we in
> Israel suffer with - they spell isha (woman) with a yod which really
> means
> "her husband". If you lived here you would flip at all the nikud mistakes
> in signs and all the liberties of improper spelling as if it made no
> difference.
>
> On Wed, Jul 14, 2010 at 2:51 PM, Sammy Noe <leini...@yahoo.co.uk> wrote:
>
> > Hi MIchael
> >
> > So far as I'm concerned this is an error, as it completely changes
> p'shat
> > from "her husband" to "a woman".
> >
> > I had to speak to someone last week, and this time he was polite: I
> told
> > him that the "yod" made the translation "her husband", and that's
> when the
> > mappik is included.
> >
> > Kind regards
> >
> > Sammy
> >
> > leining+u...@googlegroups.com<leining%2Bunsu...@googlegroups.com>
Hi Meyer
a) I don't think it's fair to put the onus on people who little, and care less;
b) I don't think any sentient person speaks in accordance with what he thinks is the standard of English they purvey, unless he's satirical; one tries to be as exact and accurate as possible, and it's irrelevant if the auditor does or does not appreciate, or even perceive, the effort.
Regards
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Jeremy
> > <leining%2Bunsu...@googlegroups.com<leining%252Buns...@googlegroups.com>
I have never stopped anybody in mid-lein for over twenty years, so, to me, it's a correctable error to be discussed afterwards.
When it comes to youth minyonim, I've not attended one for decades, but I was a gabbay in my last school year, and the amount of rubbish spewed out by visiting "men" defied belief; according to you, things have changed dramatically for the better.
Regards
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Sammy:
a) Being someone who knows little myself, I’m always happy to shift all onuses elsewhere.
b) I don’t understand what you mean here (and I read it four times). One should try to be as exact as possible, but I was asking whether colloquial mispronunciation precludes interpretive error.
Jeremy
I think if just a little care is taken the "yod", together with the "mappik", will fully indicate the correct meaning - or maybe the mappik alone.
Insofar as the "same sounding letters" are concerned no amount of effort, care and practise will enable these letters to be sounded differently: we were born to pronounce the "samech, sin and sof" the same way, and that applies also to the others.
If we were born Sephardi that would be another matter.
Regards
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Meyer
What I meant in b) was that people genrally try to speak as well as they can, without recourse to the standard of the people they're speaking to/with.
So, although I know that my "oilem" in shul couldn't care two bits if I pronounce anything correctly, I do it because it's correct.
A favourite singer of mine, called Lena Martell, used to come on stage and sing her heart out in accordance with her ability, not to reflect her audience's standards: and was she superb!
And her accuracy: I went backstage once, and she saw my kupple; Hava Nagila was in her list that year - though not that evening - and she asked me if she'd pronunced certain words correctly, and would not let my wife and I go until she'd perfected it. |
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I hope I'm not preempting RRW with this, but isn't it now maspik with the mappik?! --- On Wed, 14/7/10, Jeremy Rosenbaum Simon <jeremy...@nyu.edu> wrote: |
|
According to R Moshe Hadarshan, yes, because the mappik was removed
precisely so that the word should sound like "not".
--
Zev Sero The trouble with socialism is that you
z...@sero.name eventually run out of other people�s money
- Margaret Thatcher
RRW
I'm ranting and raving every time I go into one of my locality's frum elementary schools: everywhere I go (I don't get slandered nor libelled) I see beautiful, frum posters, all written in wonderful Hebrew, all from Chumash or daily Siddur, and every one of them utterly inaccurately pointed.
I don't ask for much, just some accuracy...........after all, these kids' teachers, who put them up, will reasonably ask for accuracy from their kids in the classroom.
Regards
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Okay Meir, but how about the "vov" and "veis"; the "kuf" and "kof"; and "samech" and "sin", as I said before.
These we cannot change, until "tayku" time, probably; but the "chirik godoil", the "yod" and the "mappik" - all three are there and all make their individual presence significant, and all ignored, when. with just a sliver of effort..................................... |
The Academy has merely given up on a King Canute exercise: it knows it cannot influence a change back to the original, so it has caved in.
But the real cognoscenti - people like us - won't go for it, and will still pronounce and use words properly.
Nehemiah's descriptions are correct and accurate, if a little soft.
Regards
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Or simply DH
Think
Teeth - Th
Then
Teethe - Dh
E-hadh
Teimanim do this
S'phardim must have as per M'chabeir by stretching out the daleth as described in SA..
> S'phardim must have as per M'chabeir by stretching out the daleth as described in SA..
We know how medieval Spanish Jews pronounced "echadhhhh", because
R Yehuda Halevi compared the buzzing of a bee to this sound.
Jeremy
----- Original Message -----
From: Meir BenChayim <mei...@hotmail.com>
Date: Wednesday, July 14, 2010 12:22 pm
Subject: RE: [leining] Correcting the Mapik Hey
To: lei...@googlegroups.com
>
> I agree with you about the ayin and chet. Ashkenazim are
> physically incapable of pronouncing them as the sefaradim do.
>
>
>
> The sof, though, is a different story. We _do_ know how to make
> the sound which is apparently the correct one, and it's not the
> Sefaradi tav, which is identical in its degusha and refuya forms. We
> could pronounce it th, as in think, a sound which is quite natural to
> us. My theory of how tav refuya became a sof is that it was a result
> of being unable to pronounce th. Listen to a German with a heavy
> accent: he doesn't say, e.g., "I am thirsty." He says "I am sirsty."
> There is no reason why we can't be machazir atara leyoshna.
>
>
>
> Meir
>
>
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They are physically capable. It's just that they never
learned how in childhood, when humans just seem to pick up
their native tongue (whatever it may be), with all its phonemes
and the native accent. When trying to learn as an adult, it's
not the same learning process. Most people just produce the
sound from their native phoneme set that is closest to the
desired sound.
With an understanding of the physiology of speech, however,
it is possible to learn how to produce sounds that are not part
of one's mamaloshen. For example, I once taught a Turkish student
how to pronounce the English voiced "th" sound (as in "the") by
explaining in detail how to position the tongue and teeth and use
the voice. I suspect many who grew up with a difference
between ayin and alef could teach most if not all of us how to
produce it. If I can hear a native speaker to use as an example,
I'm usually pretty good at figuring out how to reproduce sounds.
For our purposes, though, even if we can learn how to make
a distinction between the ayin and the alef, there is the
question of whether we should deviate from the custom of
the tzibbur.
Returning to the subject, even though there is a meaning
difference between "isha" and "ishah," both Hebrew and other
languages have homonyms that we distinguish only through context
in spoken language - e.g., "lo". Often only one interpretation
makes sense. But even when it's technically ambiguous,
in that a second interpretation also makes sense, we seem
to be able to discern the correct choice in most cases.
At the beginning of Mattot, try changing every instance of
"her husband" to "[a] woman," and see whether it's not
immediately obvious that this can't be what the text is
saying.
One could make an argument that due to our ability to
resolve such ambiguities, the lack of the pronounced final
hey does not actually change the meaning, and should fall
into the category of non-correctible error (for those who
believe there is such a category) even in the adult
congregation. I certainly agree with other previous
posters that every possible leniency should be allowed to
a young reader during the public reading, and that nuances
such as mapik hey are better left to a private conversation
after the service. There is a lot of ignorance about
mapik hey, including me until a few years ago. In fact,
I know one excellent ba'al koreh who distinguishes mapik
hey, but was not aware until I mentioned it that a patach
under a mapik hey is patach genuvah, following the same
rule as it does under final chet (ruach instead of rucha).
Jeremy
----- Original Message -----
From: Zev Sero <z...@sero.name>
Date: Wednesday, July 14, 2010 10:54 am
Subject: Re: [leining] Correcting the Mapik Hey
> z...@sero.name eventually run out of other people’s money
> - Margaret Thatcher
>
Sent via BlackBerry from T-Mobile
Shalom,
Avi Isra�ls.
--
--
Zev Sero The trouble with socialism is that you
z...@sero.name eventually run out of other people�s money
- Margaret Thatcher
Reminds me of David Frye's take-off or impersonation of Richard Nixon
Frye as Nixon:
" I couldn't just stand by and watch our country go down the drain...
<Long pause>
So I jumped right in to do it myself!"
Shalom
RRW
Sent via BlackBerry from T-Mobile
Also, can we use the proper style for Rishonim? Either "The Radak" or "Rabbi
Kimhi" instead of "Kimchi" as found on another post, not by Rabbi Wolpoe.
----- Original Message ----
From: "rabbiri...@gmail.com" <rabbiri...@gmail.com>
To: Leining <lei...@googlegroups.com>
Sent: Wed, July 14, 2010 4:41:31 PM
Subject: Re: [leining] Correcting the Mapik Hey
To each his own..
Shalom
RRW
--
Jeremy
----- Original Message -----
From: Zev Sero <z...@sero.name>
Date: Wednesday, July 14, 2010 4:32 pm
Subject: Re: [leining] Correcting the Mapik Hey
> z...@sero.name eventually run out of other people’s money
> - Margaret Thatcher
>
Jeremy
----- Original Message -----
From: rabbiri...@gmail.com
Date: Wednesday, July 14, 2010 4:43 pm
Subject: Re: [leining] Correcting the Mapik Hey
To: Leining <lei...@googlegroups.com>
Jeremy
----- Original Message -----
From: rabbiri...@gmail.com
Date: Wednesday, July 14, 2010 4:37 pm
Subject: Re: [leining] Correcting the Mapik Hey
To: Leining <lei...@googlegroups.com>
The chirik with a yod may sound strange, but it is correct without being artificial.
I know that when I pronounce the word "tsisis" out loud in k'riyas sh'ma I get an interested group of people smiling because there is a "tzee" first syllable, and then "tzis" second syllable, and that sounds strange: artificial, no.
The word "n'si'im" is spelled 4 different ways in the Toiroh, the spelling may be artificial, as there may a specific d'rash emanating from any spelling that will have fewer than two yods, but the pronunciation isn't, as that's how the chirik with a yod is pronounced.
Regards
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Jeremy
You seem to be confusing "l'shoin b'nei odom" with formally agreeing that it is correct to use it.
Because the world all use the word "nice" incorrectly, that does not mean that some Academy, as in Israel and France, has the right to lay down the law, and call it correct.
Regards
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--
Jeremy
----- Original Message -----
From: rabbiri...@gmail.com
Date: Wednesday, July 14, 2010 6:00 pm
Subject: Re: [leining] Correcting the Mapik Hey
To: Leining <lei...@googlegroups.com>
The spelling of isha (woman) with a yod has been approved by the Academy of Hebrew Language, the High Court of contemporary Hebrew usage, comprising the leading scholars of Hebrew language in Israel. This is part of their attempt to standardize and simplify writing conventions. Whether or not you agree with or like their decision, it has been carefully weighed and considered by people who know and love the language, so it is hardly a "travesty" and should not be classified with "nikud mistakes" and "liberties of improper spelling".AvieOn Wed, Jul 14, 2010 at 2:05 PM, Nehemiah Klein <kle...@gmail.com> wrote:
The "yod" is one of the many travesties of modern Israeli Hebrew that we in Israel suffer with - they spell isha (woman) with a yod which really means "her husband". If you lived here you would flip at all the nikud mistakes in signs and all the liberties of improper spelling as if it made no difference.
On Wed, Jul 14, 2010 at 2:51 PM, Sammy Noe <leini...@yahoo.co.uk> wrote:
Hi MIchaelSo far as I'm concerned this is an error, as it completely changes p'shat from "her husband" to "a woman".I had to speak to someone last week, and this time he was polite: I told him that the "yod" made the translation "her husband", and that's when the mappik is included.Kind regards
From: Michael Gutmann <mjgu...@gmail.com>
Subject: [leining] Correcting the Mapik Hey Date: Monday, 12 July, 2010, 19:48
I'm sure this has been discussed by the old-timers here before, but as
a newbie, I wouldn't know for certain.
Someone commented to me that the leining in his local youth minyan
this past week was terrible and that, among other things, the person
leining the first aliyah went through the entire parsha of nedarim
without pronouncing a single mapik. I told him that I was under the
impression that such mistakes do not need to be corrected. And then
he got really upset because he couldn't tell which "isha" was which.
So, who's right?
-Michael-
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--
Zev Sero The trouble with socialism is that you
z...@sero.name eventually run out of other people�s money
- Margaret Thatcher
> So when a reader mis proounces any word why not chalk it up to
> evolution? And say this is simpy the new normative way to say the
> word? Or another new dialect?
> Nuclear or Nucular, same difference?
Bad example. "Nookyular" is the *correct* pronunciation in large parts
of the USA.
Nehemiah - I agree wholeheartedly with everything you said: but "ad v'loi ad bichlal" - not your last sentence: and I'm far from being a Zionist. --- On Thu, 15/7/10, Nehemiah Klein <kle...@gmail.com> wrote: |
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Ani shocked m'oid! --- On Thu, 15/7/10, Zev Sero <z...@sero.name> wrote: |
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Date: Thursday, 15 July, 2010, 15:10 |
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Ani shocked m'oid! --- On Thu, 15/7/10, Zev Sero <z...@sero.name> wrote:
|