Does `cfa(,orthogonal.y=FALSE)`equal to `f1~~f2` ?

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Stan Silver

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Jul 2, 2020, 1:41:01 PM7/2/20
to lavaan
corr_model<-'
f1=~q1+q2+q3
f2=~q4+q4+q6
f3=~q7+q8+q9
#explicity indicate correlation between factors,it'
s dull to input when you have more than 10 factors
f1
~~f2
f1
~~f3
f2
~~F3
'
res1<-cfa(corr_model,df)


When factors correlated,we know factors are not orthogonal. 
without_corr_model<-'
f1=~q1+q2+q3
f2=~q4+q4+q6
f3=~q7+q8+q9
'

res2
<-cfa(without_corr_model,df,orthogonal.y=FALSE)


Does `res1` alway equal to `res2`?

Patrick (Malone Quantitative)

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Jul 2, 2020, 2:09:07 PM7/2/20
to lav...@googlegroups.com
Yes. The cfa wrapper correlates latents by default. If you haven't
already, I suggest you work through the tutorials on the lavaan
project homepage--it will clear up a lot of these questions.
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Patrick S. Malone, Ph.D., Malone Quantitative
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