Hello,
I've recently tested for measurement invariance and observed a failure to uphold strict invariance (i.e., residual covariances are non-invariant). I'd like to explore this more so with my data, but could use some guidance.
Here is a little context:
1. My measurements are all 5-point Likert agreement.
2. My condition variables vary in terms of how the measures were administered (e.g., items were randomized vs. non-randomized).
3. Ideally, I can quantify the effect of, say, randomizing items on residual covariances. Would it make sense to say that, for instance, randomizing items reduces/increases the residual covariation between measures of a scale?
Any help would be much appreciated.
Chris