“Every art and inquiry, and similarly every action as well as a choice, is held to aim at some good.”
Aristotle uses this as his reasoning for why happiness is the ultimate goal. He claims that all actions and choices are just preliminary steps toward the end of goal of achieving happiness.
First of all, this is like the fourth thing we read this semester that the writer seems to stress this idea of how happiness is the end goal, or how it’s obvious that ultimately it’s what everyone wants. And I just don’t get it. I don’t know if it’s something with the neurological synapsis in my brain or something else, but there seems to be something that’s blocking my ability to understand this concept when pretty much everyone else seems to think that it is so obvious and clear. Yet this idea still makes absolutely no sense to me. AT ALL. How can happiness be the thing that everyone is pursuing? And why, do I seem to be the only one that thinks that if true, it’s really dumb, stupid and shallow of people to be running after happiness like it’s the end goal? Because that’s what it is. Dumb, stupid, and shallow.
Secondly, this reasoning is faulty because happiness isn't the last step. Rather, it’s also a step to something else. People want happiness so that their life isn’t a total waste. So that there was some sort of meaning or purpose to it all. Therefore, ‘meaning’ or ‘purpose’ is the ultimate goal, and not happiness, because happiness is just the means to that end goal. Therefore, according to Aristotle’s reasoning happiness wouldn't be the end goal so I don’t know why he claims that it is.
I think this idea of various anachonisms is a really interesting and I think it highlights his points about choice-making very well. However, I don't think that reason necessarily has anything to do with some of the choices. Would this mean that the mean virtue is not necessarily even related to reason? For instance, the example Aristotle uses multiple times is recklessness versus cowardice. Each of those, and the mean courage, can come about not because of reason, but because of desperation, or anger, or sadness or a plentitude of other emotional, unrational reasons.
First, I think that we should define courage. If someone is in a potentially dangerous situation, but they are unlikely to have any adverse effects from charging in, and they are aware of this, it cannot be called courage. So, they must be aware that there is some amount of danger in order to be courageous (and I make the assumption that the more danger the person is in, the greater courage they will have). So, if we had a way of weighing each situation of its danger quantitatively, how much would qualify a courageous man from a reckless one, or from a coward? Obviously walking around in the real world on a normal day requires some amount of 'recklessness', if only because a helicopter could crash on top of you or something. But we don't view taking a walk as a courageous action.
Not knowing the risks of a situation and walking into it anyway is an irrational act. Sure, you know your own capabilities, but having no knowledge of what you will face means that it could be ANYTHING. Sure, you can guess what it may be based on your previous experiences, but as the empiricists say, there's no guarantee that will continue to be true in the future.
So, lets say we know the risks, quantitatively. the reward must be greater than the risk, but like gambling, the house will always win, odds are eventually you will misjudge, or simply be unlucky. And you know this too. So is it rational to walk into the situation?
Obviously the converse of this is to be irrationally afraid, which is to be afraid of anything, no matter the odds of its danger. I would argue that unless something is 100% guaranteed to not harm or be dangerous in any way, then it is completely rational to be afraid of it, as long as the fear doesn't infringe on your happiness. And so, in order to go outside, you must in some ways make an irrational act.
Now, what I'm saying is that in this respect, there is virtue in the unrational. There is an acceptable amount of irrationality accepted in our acts, and necessary to function.
to ellie: Would having purpose or meaning in your life make you happy? If so, then would that make happiness the goal? I agree that its kind of like the "chicken or the egg" argument.
"Virtue, then, is twofold, intellectual and moral...intellectual virtue result mostly from teaching - hence it requires experience and time - whereas moral virtue is the result of habit...Neither by nature, nor contrary to nature are the virtues present: they are present in us who are of such nature as to receive them, and who are completed through habit."
Aristotle principally says that moral virtue can't be taught, but only could be learned by living well. So, by living right we will receive good habits which present virtues afterwards. Also he clearly says that moral virtues are not presented in us naturally which is a direct contradiction to Kant's theory of moral law. Kant states that moral is inheritance of human beings and we easily determine good and vise. "...it needs no science and philosophy to know what one has to do in order to be honest and good, or indeed, even wise and virtuous." So, it's definitely the opposite to the virtue of Aristotle who believes we don't have any virtues naturally. Another interesting difference is that Kant doesn't believe in teaching virtues. He says that "in morality there is no imitation, and examples serve only for encouragement". I think Aristotle's idea of teaching good has some sense because a new born baby could be taught to be good or bad depending on the surroundings he is raised in. On the other side, scientists and genetics presented an idea that genes determine who the person would be, and this idea is closer to Kant's theory which I see as more persuasive.
Aristotle
“Now, since there are many actions, arts, and sciences, the ends too are many: of medicine, the end is health: of shipbuilding, a ship: of generalship, victory: of household management, wealth. “ (Aristotle, 2) Aristotle clearly defines the end. What I understood from this statement the end is the result of our action, our will. The end is the result of our goal and/or work. For instance, for a developer the end is a building for car repair person the end is a fixed car. Kant doesn’t states clearly what he meant by end and leaves it to reader to figure it out.
“As for its name, them, it is pretty much agreed on by most people: for both the many and refined say that is happiness, and they suppose that living well and acting well are same thin as being happy.” (Aristotle, 5) Aristotle says that being well and acting well is same as happiness for many people which I agree. But in different times same person can defines happiness differently. As Aristotle says when person is sick happiness is health, when poor happiness is wealth. I think happiness is kind of package. There should be health, some wealth and friends and family.
In his first book, Aristotle cryptically discusses happiness and the fulfilling aspect of being successful. He claims that all aspects of life are done so in the purpose of being successful. “We also see that even the most honored capacities-for example, generalship, household management, rhetoric-fall under the political art. Because it makes use of the remaining sciences and, further, because it legislates what one ought to do and s what to abstain from, its end would encompass those of the others, with the result that this would be the human good.” (3) He touches upon the aspect of doing things to achieve the successful goal of happiness – we do one thing to cause another to cause another, which will make us better and therefore, happier. “And thus they cherish the life of enjoyment.” (6)
I also enjoyed the comparison to animals and the ideas Aristotle brought in. I interpreted his works as an argument to further prove his point that humans are "goal" or "success" centered by showing how animals are based on impulse. He categorizes humans separately than humans - something unique since many people enjoy comparing how similar and animalistic we are. Aristotle compares an animals need to act without thinking of the end game, whereas humans act to shape the end game.
I found it interesting when comparing the concept of virtue in the Nicomachean Ethics and in Utilitarianism. When comparing it to Mill's Utilitarianism, Aristotle's approach to morality and ethics seems much simpler.
Aristotle explicitly says that without virtue we can not be happy, however Mill on the other hand viewed virtue as a tool to "multiply happiness." This virtue could be self-sacrifice or anything that upheld the "greatest happiness principle." Whereas Aristotle's definition of virtue is based largely on habitual dispositions, such as courage, friendship etc. Aristotle's application of virtue in morality and justice is a much more plausible reality then Mill's grand attempt at actualizing a highly moral striving society. Also, even though Aristotle does reference a type of standard for quantifying virtue, he realizes that it is too difficult to measure due to every individuals distinct nature. This contrasts from the stricter quantification such as the Utilitarian Calculus proposed by Bentham and Mill.