Max Weinreich believed that Ladino antedates the expusion from Spain:
https://www.jstor.org/stable/44938790
George
Quoting Lital Levy <
lital...@gmail.com>:
> Friends,
> In reviewing both the
jewishlanguage.org website and Jewish Languages from
> A to Z, it dawned on me that I don't see an answer to what I would
> anticipate would be a FAQ from general audiences:
> *Why* are there Jewish languages (to begin with)?
>
> In other words, WHY did Jews historically speak (and write differently)
> from non-Jews? How do we explain this across a range of cultural and social
> situations in different times and places? How might the answer be different
> in the Yiddish and Ladino cases, or in the cases of Baghdadi Jewish Arabic
> vs Yemeni JA?
>
> I also wonder: is Ladino qualitatively different than the other cases since
> it developed as an exilic language? When Jews lived in Iberia, do we know
> whether or not they had Jewish dialects of Arabic, Romance, Castilian, etc.?
> I'd love your thoughts and/or directions to publications addressing these
> questions.
>
> Thank you so much!
> Warmly,
> Lital
>
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