Ryrie Study Bible Kjv Pdf

[Peppin Kishore]

Iwanted to ask your opinion on something. Like you, my primary Bible has been the Ryrie Study Bible. I use the Ryrie NASB is my own personal reading. I think the NASB is a great bible for personal reading and study. Like you and many others I am really big on grace and the clear gospel. I was raised Catholic and saved nearly ten years ago, so I have experienced firsthand the deadly mixture of faith and works. Let me say first off, I really really value Dr Ryrie. His book So Great A Salvationa is a great thesis on salvation. I agree with him that believers will bear fruit at sometime, somewhere. Even deathbed conversions have the fruit of peace etc. However his note in the Ryrie Study Bibleb in James 2:24 is troubling.

This verse is the reply to the question of v.14. Unproductive faith cannot save, because it is not genuine faith. Faith and works are like a two-coupon ticket to heaven. The coupon of works is not good for passage, and the coupon of faith is not valid if detached from works.

What do you make of this comment? It seems to fly against what I know Dr Ryrie believes. I know he is big on grace and is not lordship. Yet his note here seems to indicate he would believe in Perseverance of the Saints as opposed to Eternal Security.

Will believers have good works? Probably . . . but we cannot qualify it and [this] rules out deathbed conversions. Deathbed conversions have the fruit of peace, but hardly works. Same same thing with the thief on the cross.

Curious on what insight you may offer. I love my Ryrie NASB and KJV study bibles and don't want to have to find something else! I do not think there is one with better cross references. (I just wish they made it in NKJV as I like that text better).

The footnote in the Ryrie Study Biblea to which you refer has been pointed out by many in the grace community as problematic and inconsistent with what Ryrie has said elsewhere in his brilliant critiques against Lordship Salvation in books such as So Great A Salvationb.

The basic problem with the footnote is that it asks a question from James 2 that the epistle is not designed to answer. The saving faith of James audience is presumed throughout the letter. The faith of his audience already exists and is being matured and tested (Jas 1:2-4). Thus, James refers to his audience as "brethren" throughout the letter. Rather than asking the question about whether faith exists based upon the presence of fruit as the Ryrie Study Bible footnote assumes, the real question James asks is whether one's faith, that already exists, is useful or productive in the Christian life. The issue in James 2 is not existent vs. non-existent faith but rather is productive vs. non-productive faith.

Except for a few problems like these, the Ryrie Study Bible is a very fine study Bible. I do not think that you can find a study Bible that is 100 percent perfect. Even if there is one that is soteriologically perfect, they usually have defects in their Eschatological understanding. This goes to show that no human Bible interpreter, even an outstanding one like Charles Ryrie, is perfect. As you well know, our eyes need to be consistently on the Lord and not man.

This is quite interesting to me. Looking at Dr. Ryrie's comments on the Lordship debate/salvation in general have me a bit puzzled. I myself do not own a Ryrie study Bible, but have found resources that seem to quote it. Notable verses that are regularly used against Free Grace Theology, 1 John 2:4, 3:6, 3:9, as well as Galatians 5:21, he has made seemingly very Lordship views on them, and it makes me wonder what his position on the whole debate is? I always thought he was in the moderate Free Grace position, but looking into (limited) resources I have found make me think he is almost on the Lordship perspective. For instance, on 1 John 3:6, he remarked: " The lifestyle of the one who keeps on sinning demonstrates that he does not know God". That seems to kind of go against what Free Grace was all about? The possibility that a true be3liever can and will end up in situations continuously sinning? What is your opinion on this?

This is what Ryrie says in his commentary on 1 John 3:6:

"6. Abideth...sinneth not. Both words are in the present tense and indicate the habitual character of the person. The person who is abiding in Christ is not able to sin habitually. Sin may enter his experience, but it is the exception and not the rule. If sin is the ruling principle of a life, that person is not redeemed (Rom. 6); thus a saved person cannot sin as a habit of life. When a Christian does sin, he confesses it (1 Jn 1:9) and perseveres in his purification (3:3). The continuous sinner has not known God and is therefore an unregenerate person."

Let me just offer a few comments in answer to your questions. First of all, the Bible never says "habitual character". It says "sinneth not." Period. It's not talking about habitually, it's talking about ever, i.e. the new nature of the believer never ever sins (see 1 John 3:9). That's what it's talking about, in my understanding. The nature that is from above, the nature that is born from above, does not sin. Ever. It is the flesh, the old nature, that sins. The apostle Paul makes this clear in Romans chapter 7 when he says that "in me, that is, in my flesh, dwells no good thing" (Rom. 7:18). He goes on to say that "if I do what I don't want to do, then it's not me that's doing it, but the sin nature that indwells me" (Rom. 7:20). I agree with Ryrie's statement that "the person who is abiding in Christ does not sin habitually". I agree with it not because Christian's don't sin habitually (they can and do), but because Ryrie qualifies it by saying that "the person who is abiding in Christ" doesn't sin habitually. If and when a Christian is abiding in Christ, they are by definition not sinning habitually. Abiding in Christ means to remain in Him, to rest in Him. If I'm doing that, then of course I'm not sinning habitually. It's one or the other. It's when I stop abiding in Christ that I start sinning, habitually or not. (John chapter 15 talks more about abiding in Christ.) Ryrie goes on to say, "If sin is the ruling principle of life, that person is not redeemed (Rom. 6)". But Romans 6 doesn't actually say that. What it says, what Paul says in Romans chapter 6 is, "Don't let sin reign in your mortal bodies that you should obey it's lusts" (Rom. 6:12). This of course implies that it's entirely possible for sin to reign in the lives of Christians! (Contrary to what Ryrie says.) I remember when I was in Bible school (I went to a Free Grace Bible school), the teacher made a big point about this, how sin can reign as king in our lives if we let it. And how because of our new nature, we no longer have to let sin reign as king in our lives because we are no longer under it's control. If we let sin have control, of course it will reign as king in our lives, but the point is is that we no longer have to let it have control of us. Because of our new nature and the power of the Holy Spirit, we can choose to obey Christ and follow the leading of the Holy Spirit. So just to answer your question when you asked, "can and will" a true believer "end up in situations continuously sinning?" I would say a true believer "can" end up in that situation, but not necessarily "will". It all depends on if the true believer is walking by means of the Spirit (Gal. 5:16) or not. Hope this helps! God bless!

Thank you so much for your reply! My apologies for such a late reply, I have been very busy as of recent times. That definitely cleared some things up for me. One of the only things that still kind of makes me curious is the objection that is made for 1 John 3:9 is the fact that although the Greek word used does indeed mean "to do" instead of "practice", it has a present active participle which means it is currently happening. I looked into it, and although I am not a person who looks into Biblical Greek, it does seem like that is the case. Another question I had not necessarily about the verses in question, but your positions on certain issues within free grace. This one may be a bit more of a scenario, but would you say that a practicing homosexual can go to heaven, as long as they are trusting in the finished work of Christ through faith? This is an example I see lot and would like to hear your opinion on it. Although I understand that you said it is possible for a Christian to habitually sin, do you think someone could still fall into sin like this until they die and enter heaven, since they trusted in God? Or would they not because it would not be counted as saving faith? And that is my second question, what is your view on what is included in saving faith? Thanks!

P.S. What ways can I contact you to continue this conversation further?

Hello,

I am by no means an expert in Biblical Greek, but I can tell you that the Greek verb that means "to do" (poiei) in 1 John 3:9 is not a participle. Rather, it is a present, active, indicative, 3rd person, singular verb. Basically, when I was studying Greek, we would normally translate this kind of verb as "he/she/it_________" (fill in the blank with a present tense verb, in 1 John 3:9 it is "sins not" or "does not sin"). May I recommend a very helpful resource that you may or may not be familiar with for studying Biblical Greek? In google, just type in the Bible verse and the word "Greek" after it, and the biblehub.com website comes up near the top of the list. That's the one I use, and it tells you all the Greek words and the parsings (what kind of word it functions as in the sentence) for all the Greek words in the verse. For the Greek word that we are talking about, it is poiei, from poeō, which means "to do" or "to make". (Don't always trust the "gloss" definition, or the initial definition that pops up. Look up how else the word in translated in other verses and also verify the word's definition independently through other means, i.e. by using other Greek language tools). I also want to mention that I have some good Bible commentaries on 1 John in my Free Grace Library (click on the "Free Grace Library" tab at the top of my blog page). Dr. Thomas Constable's commentaries are from a Free Grace perspective, and his commentary on 1 John is pretty good. Charlie Bing probably has some good GraceNotes on 1 John, and maybe even some on 1 John 3:9 in particular, although I have not checked into it yet. But Charlie Bing is solid, he also writes from a Free Grace perspective.

Let me move on to briefly answer, or at least respond to, your question when you asked, "would you say that a practicing homosexual can go to heaven, as long as they are trusting in the finished work of Christ through faith? This is an example I see lot and would like to hear your opinion on it. Although I understand that you said it is possible for a Christian to habitually sin, do you think someone could still fall into sin like this until they die and enter heaven, since they trusted in God? Or would they not because it would not be counted as saving faith?"

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