Hey Ajay and Raj,
This is pertaining to my question yesterday about recoding interest rates as 0 if HHs reported having no loans outstanding at the beginning of the RP (vliabilities) but being charged positive interest rates. "dateltaken" here refers to the date that HH took out the loan. 1=during RP and 79 etc refers to actual calender years.
E.g. for id1982=1, if HH said they took out a loan during RP but "vliabilities" =0 while vintrate=125, is this interest rate still of interest to us? I'm unsure of this because from what I've seen in the solowHH_dataprep file, we are interested in liabilities as the amount outstanding at the beginning of RP. Thus, in the same turn, are we interested in interest rates on loans that were taken before and/or after the RP?
Thanks.
Best,
Gedeon
