Ccna 200-301 Exam Answers

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1. An instructor is reviewing student answers on a previous term exam to prepare for a lecture on IPv6. What would be a good point for the instructor to make when explaining an IPv6 GUA (global unicast address)?

3. A technician must accommodate at least 500 subnets from address 172.16.0.0/16. What is an appropriate subnet mask and corresponding number of available host IP addresses per subnet to meet the requirement?

4. Refer to the exhibit. A PC with the MAC address of 0800.069d.3841 attached to port Fa0/8 is sending data to a device that has the MAC address of 6400.6a5a.6821. What will the switch do first to handle the data transfer?

Explanation: Every frame that enters a switch is checked for new information to learn. It does this by examining the source MAC address of the frame and port number where the frame entered the switch:

5. A network engineer is giving a tour of the company network operations center to a college class. The engineer is trying to describe how a WAN and connectivity to the internet relate to the network infrastructure. Which statement correctly describes network infrastructure and network communication?

Explanation:The internet is not owned by any individual or group. Ensuring effective communication across this diverse infrastructure requires the application of consistent and commonly recognized technologies and standards as well as the cooperation of many network administration agencies.

Explanation:The access layer represents the network edge, where traffic enters or exits the campus network. Traditionally, the primary function of an access layer switch is to provide network access to the user. Access layer switches connect to distribution layer switches, which implement network foundation technologies such as routing, quality of service, and security.

9. Students in a data networking class are reviewing materials in preparation for a quiz. Which statement describes the operation of an access control method for shared network media?

Explanation:CMSA/CA does not detect collisions but attempts to avoid them by waiting before transmitting. Each device that transmits includes the time duration that it needs for the transmission. All other wireless devices receive this information and know how long the medium will be unavailable.

14. A network administrator is using the Cisco DNA Center to monitor network health and to troubleshoot network issues. Which area should the administrator use to perform these tasks?

Explanation: Configuration management tools typically include automation and orchestration. Automation is automatically performing a task on a system. Arranging the automated tasks into a coordinated process or workflow is called orchestration.

16. Which function of the Cisco intent-based networking system (IBNS) enables network operators to express the expected networking behavior that will best support the business intent?

21. When an end device requests services from a DHCPv4 server it receives a host IPv4 address and a subnet mask. Which two other IPv4 addresses are also typically provided to a DCHPv4 client? (Choose two.)

Explanation: LAN NTP server and local HTTP web server addresses are not provided by DHCP. Automatic private IPv4 addresses (APIPA) are used by DHCP clients when the clients fail to connect to a DHCPv4 server.

22. A network engineer wants to synchronize the time of a router with an NTP server at the IPv4 address 209.165.200.225. The exit interface of the router is configured with an IPv4 address of 192.168.212.11. Which global configuration command should be used to configure the NTP server as the time source for this router?

23. When testing a new web server, a network administrator cannot access the home page when the server name is entered into a web browser on a PC. Pings to both the IPv4 and IPv6 addresses of the server are successful. What could be the problem?

24. A network engineer is using SNMP manager software to monitor and manage network performance. In addition to polling network devices at regular time intervals, the engineer is configuring the devices to generate messages that inform the SNMP manager of specified events. What message type is configured on those devices that allows them to send unsolicited messages?

Explanation: A network device stores information for SNMP in the MIB. This information can be sent to the SNMP manager when specifically requested with a get message. Unsolicited messages that are sent when pre-configured specified events occur are trap messages.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Which access list configuration on router R1 will prevent traffic from the 192.168.2.0 LAN from reaching the Restricted LAN while permitting traffic from any other LAN?

Explanation: The correct access list syntax requires that the deny source IP address (192.168.2.0) statement come before the permit statement so that only traffic sourced from the 192.168.2.0 LAN is denied. Then the access list must be applied on interface G0/2 in the outbound direction.

27. An administrator who is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a switch notices that a switch port configured for port security is in the err-disabled state. After verifying the cause of the violation, how should the administrator re-enable the port without disrupting network operation?

Explanation:To re-enable the port, use the shutdown interface configuration mode command (Figure 3). Then, use the no shutdown interface configuration command to make the port operational.

28. An IT security specialist enables port security on a switch port of a Cisco switch. What is the default violation mode in use until the switch port is configured to use a different violation mode?

Explanation:When DHCP snooping is configured, the interface that connects to the DHCP server is configured as a trusted port. Trusted ports can source DHCP requests and acknowledgments. All ports not specifically configured as trusted are considered untrusted by the switch and can only source DHCP requests.

Explanation:WAP2 Enterprise provides stronger secure user authentication than WPA2 PSK does. Instead of using a pre-shared key for all users to access a WLAN, WPA2 Enterprise requires that users enter their own username and password credentials to be authenticated before they can access the WLAN. The RADIUS server is required for deploying WPA2 Enterprise authentication.

35. A network engineer has been asked to prepare a router and to ensure that it can route IPv6 packets. Which command should the network engineer ensure has been entered on the router?

45. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which task has to be performed on Router 1 for it to establish an OSPF adjacency with Router 2?

Explanation: Each interface on the link connecting the OSPF routers must be in the same subnet for an adjacency to be established. The IP address subnet mask on FastEthernet interface 0/0 must be changed to 255.255.255.0. The FastEthernet interface 0/0 is not passive. The 10.0.1.0/24 network is only connected to Router2 so should not be advertised by Router1. The clear ip ospf process command will start the OPSF process on Router1 but will not cause an adjacency to be established if the subnet mask mismatch on the connecting interfaces still exists.

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