Excluding Shakespeare you mean?
She would feel a right prat if she found out that the real William Shakespeare was watching her video don't you think?
However it is right what she was saying about how he would have to have mastered every trade going and have knowledge of various places. Even so you don't need a university education to do anything. As the sponsor of the video Keir Cutler says. Original thinking gets in the way of passing exams, you just need to copy what the tutor says! I bet that was the same in the 16th Century as it is in the 21st!
However what she fails to take into account is the fact that NO other candidate can fill those shoes either. If they have certain skills, like many of the candidates are supposed to have, they fail on others. Exactly the same as Shakespeare would fail. Probably why the anti-Stratfordian camps can't agree on one person.
Having got the Italian book, despite the fact there are some massive assumptions in it. He does point out that a detailed knowledge of jewish customs is there in the plays. Something that none of the candidates would have. Can you even see some of these aristos even wanting a detailed knowledge of them?
The only way you can get that sort of information is by picking a huge amount of people's brains and to put it all together you need someone who will get on with everyone and cross barriers. Aristos can't do that. They have to much position and status. So you are left with someone who can slide between the camps. A middle class person!
The other thing she was on about is Shakespeare's status or job. But the problem is that the anti-stratfordians do rely on the Stratfordians for the source of information. It can be summed up as soon as they talk about the "lost years". That's a Stratfordian assumption! So why do they even give it credence? If everything else is wrong with the Stratfordian evidence of Shakespeare, why is that right?
All you need to do is exactly what I did on the Anti-Oxford site. Question the dating of the plays using Holinshed's Chronicle. That was according to them the main source of Shakespeare's plays. But there are two versions of the book. One dates to 1577 and one to 1587. But the academics say that Shakespeare only read the 1587 version. Thus the plays date after that day. But when I pointed out that the information in the 1587 version was the same as a Shakespeare play, including lines spoken by people who had died 200 years before the book came out. Which would of course would not be recorded in any document and no-one alive would remember what they said, to get the information. So I told them isn't it more likely that the book writers copied the play? However one person on the site said there was little difference the 1577 and 1587. In which case it would mean that Shakespeare DID read the 1577 edition. But that of course means that you can shove back the dating of the plays to just after 1577. And if that is the case. Many references to the plays, which were previously seen as source material by Shakespeare, actually are referring to Shakespeare plays. Meaning he was well known!
All because you can move the dates of the plays back 10 or more years. The lost years then vanish!