On Sep 27, 6:02 am, Paul Crowley <
dsfdsfd...@sdfsfsfs.com> wrote:
> On 26/09/2012 15:39, Dominic Hughes wrote:
>
>
>
>
>
> >>>> Cover-ups (especially government initiated and
> >>>> sponsored ones)have been an ever-present aspect
> >>>> of history. In numerous cases we are not sure
> >>>> whether or not they took place. Did Roosevelt
> >>>> (or Churchill, or both) know that the Japs were
> >>>> planning to attack Pearl Harbour? When did they
> >>>> find out about (say) Katyn or the Holocaust?
> >>>> And so on and on . . .
>
> >>> Exactly...and that all involves speculation and none of it
> >>> can be stated to be unequivocal fact
>
> >> So, under your theory of history, all that should
> >> ever be discussed are "unequivocal facts"
>
> > Nice strawman. Speculation is perfectly fine as far
> > as it goes. The problem comes when speculation is
> > treated as unequivocal fact, which is what you do.
> > You turn your speculations into statements of fact.
>
> This is not what you said above.
It is exactly what I said above, and, as a matter of fact, it is
exactly what I have said to you previously here at HLAS on occasions
too numerous to count. Your speculations are not facts, and yet you
treat them as if they were. The sad fact is that you don't even
realize that is what you are doing [as will be evidenced below].
> Whenever you
> are shown to be wrong,
When and where have you shown anything I've said in this thread to be
wrong?
> you pretend to be saying
> something else.
This is some fine projection on your part.
> And this version is especially nonsensical. Since
> none of us were there, and it was a cover-up, how
> can anyone be sure as to what actually did happen?
There you go again, turning your speculation that there was a cover-up
into an unequivocal factual statement that there actually was a cover-
up.
If you assume that your case is proved (and that your Lord WAS the
poet and his authorship was hidden by a conspiratorial cover-up) then
you will see many references to William Shakespeare being references
to de Vere, and you will see the absolute lack of any evidence of a
cover-up as evidence that there was, in fact, a cover-up.
The sad fact is that you are unable to perceive what is wrong with
your logic here?
> The only issue is whether or not the story anyone
> claims to be able to derive makes reasonable
> sense.
You are quite irrational...that is not the only issue at all. In
order to prove a speculative theory you need to provide evidence.
Speculative theories are not proved absent evidence. The other
problem with your so-called logic here is that you are applying a
completely subjective standard to what should be an objective
question. The fact that your theories make sense to you proves
nothing, especially in light of the fact that your theories have no
supporting evidence and don't make any sense to anyone else. You have
just summed up the problems with your idiotic method here...if your
speculations make "reasonable sense" to you then the issue is settled,
as far as you are concerned, and your speculations can be treated as
verified facts.
The sad fact is that you are unable to perceive what is wrong with
your logic here?
> I am certain that I get much of it wrong.
> But, at least, I am not claiming that the Canon was
> written by an illiterate with a funny name, nor that
> a government minister sponsored a scheme
> involving a faked death.
Who here is claiming that the Canon was written by an illiterate with
a funny name? You are once more making the assumption that you
speculations [this time as to the supposed illiteracy of Shakespeare]
should be taken as established fact. The sad fact is that you are
unable to perceive what is wrong with your logic here?
> >> -- as
> >> presumably agreed by a committee of established
> >> experts? So, for you, since all established
> >> experts at the time agreed that Copernicus and
> >> Galileo were talking heretical nonsense and
> >> should be silenced, the sun and the stars still
> >> revolve around the earth every day?
>
> > Another strawman, and, in fact, since Copernicus
> > and Galileo eventually grounded their theories in
> > observable evidence
You cut the context here: Another strawman, and, in fact, since
Copernicus and Galileo eventually grounded their theories in
observable evidence, they would be more like Stratfordians and you
would be the one questioning them. Your speculations are not backed up
by evidence; therefore, they remain nothing more than speculation and
are not established fact.
> There is massive evidence for Oxford -- and
> against the Stratman.
If there is "massive evidence for Oxford," why don't you go ahead and
list the five most relevant pieces of evidence right here:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Likewise, out of all of the massive evidence against the Stratman, why
don't you list the five most relevant pieces of evidence against
Shakespeare of Stratford here:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
> I have asked you a
> thousand questions you have to duck, such
> as those below:
What is supposed to follow your colon [what typically follows your
colon are the speculations you pull out of your arse]?
??? What questions would those be. Surely if there are thousands of
questions I have been forced to duck you ought to be able to provide
some links to those in the archives without any trouble at all.
> > As an example, any number of Stratfordian "experts"
> > have contended that "Shakespeare was hoarding
> > grain in a time of famine." I have thoroughly
> > examined all of the evidence I can find on the subject
> > and such statements are hogwash. It is interesting
> > speculation but it is not proven by the available
> > evidence.
>
> Sure -- why not ignore the forest, and look at
> one single tree?
This is really ironic coming from you. You are unable to look at the
evidence at all, whether individually, piece by piece, or
cumulatively.
> This guy was supposed to
> be England's greatest writer of all time. All
> you can think about is whether or not he used
> more grain than he should have, for beer.
Don't be stupid. Over the years here I have shown myself to be
concerned with far more than this issue.
> That's exactly the right question for some
> nobody who had more money than he was
> used to handling. It's a long long way from
> anything literary.
Who said it had anything to do with anything literary? It was merely
offered as an example of the fact that I examine the evidence and
don't mindlessly accept the conclusions of any "committee of
established experts." You, on the other hand, are a committee of one,
who treats his speculations as if they were the conclusions of experts
and accepted as verified fact. The sad fact is that you are unable to
perceive what is wrong with your logic here? You seem completely
unable to see that what you are doing is treating your speculations as
if they were facts.
> >> The Stratfordian theory might (just about) have
> >> remained plausible while (a) he was thought to
> >> have been a 'gentleman in the country' and
> >> (b) had good supporting documentation.
>
> > This is speculation that you treat as fact.
>
> Ridiculous.
Yes, your speculations are ridiculous, as are the methods that you
use.
> It would be very easy to ask any
> historian what documentation could reasonably
> have been expected from a great and famous
> author,
So now we've gone from the necessity of rejecting the conclusions of a
"committee of established experts" to the reliability of asking one
historian what he would expect to find. Brilliant. The fact is that
there is no one standard as to what we could reasonably expect to find
from any author of the period.
For instance, look at Diana Price's book, *Shakespeare's Unorthodox
Biography* and you will see that there is no evidence of education for
Michael Drayton, George Chapman, Anthony Mundy, Thomas Heywood, Thomas
Dekker, John Fletcher, John Webster, and William Shakespeare.
According to Price's book, the other writers of the time who are
deficient in evidence of having "owned, written in, borrowed or given"
books are Philip Massinger, Samuel Daniel, George Peele, Michael
Drayton, Anthony Munday, Thomas Middleton, John Lyly, Thomas Heywood,
Robert Greene, Thomas Dekker, Thomas Watson, Christopher Marlowe,
Francis Beaumont, Thomas Kyd, John Webster and William Shakespeare.
Of course that ignores the fact that we have a book with Shakespeare's
signature in it (Archaionomia).
>whose house remained untouched and
> in his family for 50 years after his death --
You don't even know the facts even though they have been pointed out
to you previously. In 1637 it was recorded that Baldwin Brookes
robbed Shakespeare's home New Place of "diverse books...desks,bonds,
bills, and other goods of great value."
"...Susanna and her son-in-law charged in Chancery that Baldwin Brooks
(afterwards to become the bailiff of Stratford) had suborned an
undersheriff and some bailiffs -'men of mean estate' - to break open
the doors and study of New Place, and rashly seize 'divers books' and
'other goods of great value'. Brooks had been frustrated in his
efforts to collect a judgement against the Hall estate."
- Samuel Schoenbaum, CDL
The court transcriptions are are re-printed in "William Shakespeare
and his
daughter Susanna" by Frank Marcham and "The Shakespeare Documents" by
B.Roland Lewis.
Suit for recovery of debt brought by Baldwin Brookes, mercer of
Stratford upon
Avon against Susanna Hall, nee Shakespeare, owner of New Place,
Stratford upon
Avon and her son-in-law Thomas Nashe, Gent., against the estate of
Susanna's
husband John Hall who died 2 years earlier: "...that hee was seised of
Two Messuages and of certayne Land meadowe & pasture contayninge by
estimacion ffoure yard Land wth thappurtennces lyeinge wthin the
parishes of Stratford vppon Avon old Stratford Bishopton and welcombe
in the Countye of Warwicke and of one Messuage lyeings and beinge in
Blackefriers London in the right of the Defendant Susan as given to
her the said Susan by the last Will and testament of Willm.
Shackspeare gent her late father...men of meane estate or worth
violently and forceablie to breake open the house in Stratford
aforesaid where theis Defendantes dwell and inhabite And that the said
Bayliffes Did then and there break open the Doores and studdy of the
said howse and Rashlye seise vppon and take Divers bookes boxes Deskes
moneyes bonds bills and other goods of greate value as well weh were
of the said John Halls as of the proper goods of this Defendant Thomas
Nashe the perticulers or value whereof theis Defendants saie they are
not able to expresse...".
> and then compare the expectation with the
> lamentable fact that NOTHING -- yes, that's
> right -- NOTHING was left there to be found.
There is more than ample evidence to establish that Shakespeare of
Stratford wrote the works and was an actor and shareholder in the
acting company that performed the plays and the theatres where they
were performed.
> It would be very easy to ask any historian what
> they would expect to see in the few documents
> that could be found concerning the man -- e.g.
> his will, a note about a conversation with him
> from a highly-literary lawyer, what his daughter
> had to say about him on her tombstone (we
> are obliged to scape the barrel) and on that of
> her husband. What do we get -- NOTHING
> that indicates he was literate -- let alone
> literary.
Your double standard is amusing, but your ignorant avoidance of the
evidence for Shakespeare of Stratford is not.
> > I stated that there was no evidence to support
> > your claim that there was a conspiracy,
>
> The nonsensical claim that he was England's
> greatest writer -- given that everything else
> about him indicates illiteracy, including his
> 'signatures', his name,
According to your speculations, but not according to the actual
evidence.
> and, in
>
> > response, you offer your speculations as to how
> > the conspiracy could have worked
>
> I was setting out the context. The first question
> in proposing ANY historical scenario is whether
> or not it is reasonable.
Your scenario is not reasonable. A jury applies a reasonable man
standard to questions such as this...you have failed to convince
anyone of the reasonableness of your theories, much less a jury of
twelve. You have only convinced your self.
Your theory will never be generally accepted. Ideas that start as
speculative theories and become generally accepted do so because
evidence is eventually produced which supports the theory. You have
no such evidence, and, in fact, the evidence that does exist [direct,
physical evidence] rebuts your theory and establishes the Stratfordian
case. Of course, you simply deny that such evidence has any
evidentiary weight whatsoever with your speculation turned-to-fact
that there was a conspiracy, even though there is absolutely no
evidence of any such conspiracy.
> The Stratfordian story
> is ludicrously absurd, and the evidence that
> Strats need to back up such a crazy invention
> has to be massive. Up to about 1860, it was
> generally assumed that it existed -- or could be
> found with a minimal effort. Now we know that
> there is none.
Bullshit.
Following is just some of the evidence that establishes the
Stratfordian attribution:
The following contemporaneous documents specifically identify William
Shakespeare of Stratford as the author of the works named therein, by
the use of the honorific [“Master”, “Mr.” or “M.”] or the status
signifier [“Gentleman” or “Gent.”] that William Shakespeare of
Stratford was entitled to use by the fact that his father had been
granted a coat of arms. There was no other William Shakespeare,
especially not one associated with the King’s Men and the Globe
Theatre, who was entitled to be addressed in these terms, and, so,
when these terms are used in a document, there can be no question that
they are explicitly identifying Shakespeare of Stratford by name.These
documents qualify as direct evidence, during the Stratford Man’s
lifetime, that he was the author of the works cited within the
respective documents – no inference is required to be drawn from these
documents to link them specifically to WS of Stratford. It is a
documented fact that Shakespeare's father was granted a coat of arms,
and that, following the grant of the coat of arms, William Shakespeare
was subsequently entitled to be addressed as "Master" Shakespeare and
accorded the status of Gentleman. That the author of the works was so
designated during his lifetime is documented:
(1.) 1599 The Returne from Parnassus, Part I: "Mr. Shakspeare" [more
than once, references Venus & Adonis, Romeo and Juliet]
(2.) 1600 Stationer's Register entry for Henry the Fourth, Part Two
and Much Ado About Nothing: "master Shakespere"
(3.) 1607 Stationer's Register entry for King Lear: "Master William
Shakespeare"
(4.) 1608 Q1 of King Lear: "M. William Shak-speare" (title page) "M
William Shak-speare" (head title)
(5.) 1610 The Scourge of Folly by John Davies of Hereford: "Mr. Will:
Shake-speare"
(6.) 1612 "Epistle" to The White Devil by John Webster: "M. Shake-
speare"
(7.) 1614 Runne and a Great Cast by Thomas Freeman: "Master W.
Shakespeare" [references Venus & Adonis, Lucrece]
(8.) 1615: ed. 5 of John Stow's Annales, by Edmund Howes): "M. Willi.
Shakespeare gentleman" [in a list of contemporary poets]
(9.) 1616 (Q6 Lucrece): "Mr. William Shakespeare" (title page).
Here are some more following his death, all of which specify the
Stratford Man by the use of the status conferred by the grant of the
coat of arms:
(10.) 1619 Title page, Q3 (Pavier quarto) of Henry VI Parts 2 & 3):
"William Shakespeare, Gent.";
(11.) 1619 Title page, Q2 of King Lear: "M. William Shake-speare";
(12.) 1619 Head title of Q2 of King Lear: "M. William Shake-speare";
(13.) 1622 Catalogus Universalis pro Nundinis Francofurtensibus;
Frankfort book fair list of books to be published in England between
April and October 1622): "M. William Shakespeare";
(14.) 1623 Stationer's Register entry for First Folio: "Mr. William
Shakspeer".
Here are some of the other documents from the historic record that tie
WS of Stratford directly to the Globe theatre.
(1.) 1601 (Deed transfering the Globe and other Southwark properties
from Nicholas Brend to Sir Matthew Brown and John Collett as security
for a 2500-pound debt; October 7): "Richard Burbadge and William
Shackspeare gent."
(2.) 1601 (Updated deed for the above transaction; October 10):
"Richard Burbage and William Shakspeare gentlemen"
(3.) 1608 (Deed transferring the Globe and other properties from John
Collett to John Bodley; November 11): "Richard Burbadge & William
Shakespeare gent"
Kindly explain to me why you think this evidence should be ignored or
summarily dismissed, and, while you're at it, display some o0f the
evidence for de Vere that is comparable.
> >> But
> >> that came to an end when the 'documentation'
> >> turned out to have been forged, and his father,
> >> mother, wife and daughters were seen to be
> >> illiterate.
>
> > More speculatrion stated as fact. The
> > documentation was not forged
>
> Nonsense. Most of what was thought to
> be reliable documentation around 1840 was
> shown to be forged -- mainly by Collier.
More bullshit. None of the documentation I have listed above has been
shown to be forged, by Collier or anyone else.
Please list the records that you contend were "thought to be reliable
documentation around 1840" but were then shown to be forged. Or are
you just pulling assertions out of your arse again?
> > [it is well-known what documents were forged,
>
> On the contrary, Collier NEVER said what
> he had forged and what he hadn't.
That doesn't refute my point. All of the records have been minutely
examined and there is no current dispute as to what documents were
forged and which are genuine.
> > and those forgeries have absolutely nothing to do
> > with the documentation, the evidence, which
> > establishes the Stratfordian attribution.
>
> Absurd. That fact that items (formerly trusted)
> are forged is STILL emerging. Up to recently
> people used to trust the supposed performance
> at sea of some of the plays -- quoted for dating
> (and therefore attribution).
Please supply a link to any study showing that performances at sea
were quoted for the purpose of dating the plays [thus supplying
evidence for attribution], and then provide a link to any study
showing that any such documents have been shown to be forgeries.
> > Prove that Shakespeare's father, mother, wife and
> > daughters could not read.
>
> The only proof you'd accept would be their
> resurrection, and then a witnessed statement
> from each.
No, actually, I'd accept a sensible and reasoned argument tending to
establish the claim. You are unable to provide any such thing.
>But failing that (as normal humans
> must) no sensible person would contest that
> most obvious of facts.
How would you know -- you are not sensible?
This was taken from the 'shaxper' site and is a pretty good summary:
“Given the necessarily fragmentary nature of the evidence we have, a
lot of what anybody says about literacy in Elizabethan England is
based on intelligent guesswork. John Shakespeare, William's father,
made his mark rather than signing his name on legal documents. This
provides no positive evidence of his literacy, and it allows us to
assume that he probably couldn't sign his name, which in turn allows
us to assume that he probably couldn't read or write. However, none of
this *proves* anything; literate men, such as John's neighbor Adrian
Quiney, sometimes signed with a mark, and contemporary documents make
it clear that it was not uncommon for people to be able to read but
not write. On balance, I'd say that John Shakespeare *probably*
couldn't write, and I'd say less confidently that he probably couldn't
read, but there have certainly been scholars who have believed that he
was literate to some degree, and it is not unreasonable to think so.
Susanna Shakespeare-Hall could sign her name, which allows us to
assume she was literate. The only potential evidence against this
conclusion is the posthumous story about her supposedly not
recognizing her husband's handwriting, which is a little puzzling in
any case. On balance, I'd say that it is most likely that Susanna
could read and write, but that it is *possible* that she was only able
to sign her name. (By the way, "witty" in the 17th century meant
"intelligent" rather than "able to toss off clever remarks at dinner
parties.") Susanna's sister Judith signed with a mark; this provides
no positive evidence that she was literate, and given the very low
priority given to women's education, the most natural assumption is
that she was illiterate.
So, Shakespeare's father was probably illiterate but possibly not; his
one daughter was probably literate but possibly not; his other
daughter was very probably illiterate. His only son, Hamnet, died at
the age of 11, and we have no way of assessing his literacy, though
the default assumption is that he would have attended the Stratford
grammar school. A flat statement that all of William Shakespeare's
blood relatives were illiterate through three generations seems to me
not to be a very fair statement of the situation, and at best an
oversimplification. And in any case, as Terence Hawkes pointed out,
we're talking about the late 16th century here, not the late 20th. The
upwardly mobile middle class, of which Shakespeare was a member, was
much better educated than their parents' generation, but even so,
education was seen as something for boys; educating girls was seen as
a waste of precious resources.
Shakespeare was, believe it or not, a product of his times, and
however tempting it may be to infer his personal opinions from what he
has the characters in his plays say, there is nothing surprising about
what we know of his family's literacy.”
- - - - -
I note that you have snipped my request that you prove that
Shakespeare's brothers were illiterate.
> >> Where is the 'speculation' in that? It is what
> >> is done in every investigation of human conduct
> >> (for example) by the police into a crime, and it
> >> usually produces results.
>
> > It usually produces evidence. Your speculation
> > does not do any such thing. The police start with
> > multiple theories in mind and whittle them down
> > by an examination of evidence which may
> > eliminate one suspect or tie another to the crime.
>
> In cases like this, they have first to establish
> what crimes, if any, were committed. (E,g,
> Watergate, Monica Lewinsky, Oliver North
> and Iran-Contra, Dominiqe Strauss-Kahn)
Right...they establish what crimes were committed by following the
evidence, not by speculation. If only you would do the same.
Why do you snip what is said without acknowledging that you have done
so? Here is what I said in full:
It usually produces evidence. Your speculation does not do any such
thing. The police start with multiple theories in mind and whittle
them down by an examination of evidence which may eliminate one
suspect or tie another to the crime. They certainly shouldn't engage
in your method which is to summarily dismiss any evidence which
contradicts their theory of the case. The method you employ is
completely dissimilar to that employed by the police, or any other
inquirers into fact. You start with the assumption that de Vere was
the author; they start with an open mind. You ignore, dismiss, or
deny the evidence; they follow it wherever it leads. That you don't
recognize the difference in what you do and what the police actually
do is remarkable.
> > I also find it incredibly ironic that you would say
> > that "we have to look at what the parties, who
> > might or might not have known, actually did, and
> > what they did not do, and at what they actually
> > said." This is something that you do not do. For
> > instance, the will of Augustine Phillips, executed
> > 5 May 1605, proved 16 May 1605, bequeaths, "to
> > my Fellowe William Shakespeare a thirty shillings
> > peece in gould, To my Fellowe Henry Condell one
> > other thirty shillinge peece in gould . . .
>
> Ridiculous. IF there had been a government-
> sponsored cover-up, then the wills of the
> chief participants would have been one of
> the first documents to be 'edited' -- and in
> exactly the manner in which we see -- some
> trivial pointless, meaningless gesture.
This may be the stupidest things you have ever said [and that's saying
something]. There is no indication whatsoever that Phillip's will was
edited at all. And the notion that conspirators would try to cover up
hidden authorship by faking bequests in Last Wills, which would be
seen by maybe two clerks and then forgotten for hundreds of years, is
ludicrous. Your theory about Phillip's Will is not sensible.
By the way, you snipped what I said again without indicating that you
were doing so:
All of the people who Phillips calls his "fellows" were actors in the
King's Men. Augustine Phillips's bequest of 30 shillings to his
"Fellowe" Shakespeare was written 11 months after the Earl of Oxford's
death. This is something that Phillips did [leaving money to
Shakespeare] and said [Shakespeare was one of his fellow actors in the
King's Men], and yet you will summarily dismiss it as a forgery
committed by your conspiracy. You would rather speculate as to what
someone would or should have said or done, according to your
subjective way of looking at it [and then treating that speculation as
evidence], rather than actually looking at what was said and done.
You did exactly as I predicted you would.
> This 'transaction' is about as useless a
> piece of evidence for your side as you
> could get. The fact that you have nothing
> better should tell you just how good a
> case you have,
Who said I have nothing better, you nincompoop. I've listed numerous
other documents above. Real, physical evidence from the historical
record. What do you have that is even remotely comparable?
The fact that you have absolutely nothing at all that even qualifies
as comparable evidence should show you that you have no case, but you
are blind. If you had one eye you'd be a cyclops.
> >> What one of the relatives, friends, neighbours
> >> or acquaintances of the Stratman said anything
> >> about the man -- as a literary person?
>
> > You've never heard of Leonard Digges?
>
> How would Leonard Digges have known
> the Stratman?
Digges widowed mother married Thomas Russell, Shakespeare's friend and
one of the overseers of his will.
> > Or John Davies?
>
> Sure -- everyone who admired the poet, must
> have known him personally and known that he
> was the Stratman.
The evidence shows that Davies most likely did. There are three poems
by Davies which reference William Shakespeare.
A.
To our English Terence, Mr. Will. Shake-speare.
Some say (good Will) which I, in sport, do sing,
Had'st thou not plaid some Kingly parts in sport,
Thou hadst bin a companion for a King;
And, beene a King among the meaner sort.
Some others raile; but, raile as they thinke fit,
Thou hast no railing, but a raigning Wit:
And honesty thou sow'st, which they do reape;
So, to increase their Stocke which they do keepe.
B.
Players, I love yee, and your Qualitie,
As ye are Men, that pass time not abus’d:
And some I love for painting, poesie W.S. R.B.
And say fell fortune cannot be excus’d,
That hath for better uses you refused:
Wit, Courage, good shape, good partes and all goode,
As long as all these goods are no worse us’d,
And though the stage doth staine pure gentle bloode
Yet generous yee are in minde and moode.
C.
Some followed her by acting all mens parts Stage Players
These on a Stage she rais’d (in scorne) to fall:
And made them Mirrors, by their acting Arts,
Wherin men saw their faults, though ne’r so small:
Yet soome she guerdond not, to their desarts; W.S. R.B.
But, othersome, were but ill-actioned all:
Who while they acted ill, ill staid behinde,
(By custome of their maners) in their minde.
The initials in these poems are printed in marginal notes to the
poems, along with other marginal notes supplied by the poet. So we
have Davies calling the poet "Mr." William Shakespeare [indicating his
status as a gentleman], referring to him as "good Will", identifying
him as an actor in company with Burbage, and making quite personal
comments as to his qualities. Of course, this will mean nothing to
you since you are not sensible.
What about Phillips? Heminge? Condell? Jonson? Heywood? Webster?
Beaumont? Basse? Sir Richard Baker? The Stratford Monument? The
First Folio?
> >>>> The poet himself never said anything about
> >>>> himself . . . apart from a few vague hints
>
> >>> So?
>
> >> Name another author (about as prolific) who
> >> was as silent -- in Early Modern times or
> >> later.
>
> > What did Marlowe say about himself?
>
> Marlowe was, of course, conveniently dead
> when his name was used to publish some
> of Oxford's early works.
You make me laugh. You simply can't help yourself. Your speculations
are stated as fact, and no evidence is ever offered to support your
nonsensical claims.
> It seems that no
> one had heard Marlowe mentioned as a poet
> while he was alive.
Exactly. Unlike William Shakespeare of Stratford.
> >>> [...]
> >>>> The poet never remarked on any other poet
> >>>> of the day (except in a recondite manner about
> >>>> an unnamed 'rival poet'.
>
> >>> So?
>
> >> Name another poet (about as prolific) who
> >> was as silent on others of his day -- in Early
> >> Modern times or later.
>
> > What did Marlowe say about other poets?
>
> Marlowe was, of course, conveniently dead
> when his name was used to publish some
> of Oxford's early works. It seems that no
> one had heard Marlowe mentioned as a poet
> while he was alive.
Idiotic speculation parading as fact.
> >>>> No one wrote
> >>>> commendatory verses about him during his
> >>>> life. And so on and on . . . . .
>
> >>> Bullshit.
>
> >> Who wrote about the Stratford man, on his
> >> death or during his life?
>
> > See the list above for some of the names.
>
> If you assume that your case is proved
I don't but you quite obviously do.
> (and
> that the Stratman WAS the poet) then you
> will see many references to the poet being
> references to the Stratman.
You are indulging in projection.
> Can you see what is wrong with the logic
> there?
Yes...I plainly see the errors in logic in such an approach and that
is why I don't employ any such methods. The question is why you can't
see what is logically wrong in your method.
If you assume that your case is proved (and that your Lord WAS the
poet and his authorship was hidden by a conspiratorial cover-up) then
you will see many references to William Shakespeare being references
to de Vere, and you will see the absolute lack of any evidence of a
cover-up as evidence that there was, in fact, a cover-up.
The sad fact is that you are unable to perceive what is wrong with
your logic here?
Dom
Here is some more of what you snipped: