On Oct 11, 7:27 am, Paul Crowley <
dsfdsfd...@sdfsfsfs.com> wrote:
> On 10/10/2012 22:44, Dominic Hughes wrote:
>
> >>>
http://www.facebook.com/LastWill.andTestamentTheMovie?ref=ts&fref=ts
> >>> It appears they're resorting to flat-out lying now. Beginning at
> >>> 1:39 an Oxfodian intones, "If he were the man from Stratford,
> >>> there would be some evidence. That there is none, speaks
> >>> volumes."
>
> >>> Apparently their idea of evidence is different than the rest of the
> >>> world, but we already knew that.
>
> > Exactly. As Crowley himself has stated, the evidence that
> > supports the Oxenfordian cause is of "a totally different
> > nature" from that which is usually considered to be evidence
>
> That is a lie.
It isn't a lie at all. In fact, here is exactly what was said:
DH: "My point was that you have zero evidence to support your
theory."
PC: "And my point was that the evidence that supports it is of a
TOTALLY different nature from what you would count as 'evidence'. (As
is always the case in paradigm shifts. You're looking for the
equivalent of Biblical proofs of Helio-centrism or of Evolution.)
Anti-Strat theories obviously dispute the shallow and superficial
Stratfordian readings of various (ambiguous)statements in legal
documents. They rely much more on the absence of anything clear or
definitive -- and
on the entire nature of the ALL the 'documents' as well on the whole
historical and cultural background."
http://groups.google.com/group/humanities.lit.authors.shakespeare/msg/0f83e5de11005744?hl=en&dmode=source
Are you lying, is your memory shot, are you just pulling answers out
of your arse as you go along...all of the above?
Here are some further quotations from the archives:
1.
DH: "One more time...what evidence do you have, of the nature that is
commonly accepted to be evidence or of the "TOTALLY different nature"
that you claim exists, for your pronouncement that the plotters
pickedintentionally chose an illiterate man to stand in for the
author, so as to play a joke on the ignorant."
PC: "His manifest illiteracy -- among much else."
Comment: This excerpt alone reveals that you have no clue as to what
constitutes evidence. It also highlights your utter lack of the
mental ability necessary to fashion an actual, responsive argument.
2.
DH:
You can't even remember your own assertions. You asserted that the
mother, father and wife of William Shakespeare were all illiterate. I
asked you for the EVIDENCE that YOU relied on to support your
assertions. Without citing anyone in particular, you replied that no
serious student of the times would dispute that they were illiterate.
You obviously have no idea whatsoever as to what qualifies as
evidence. What is also interesting is that you cite "serious students
of the times" as authority for the proposition that the mother, father
and wife were illiterate, but you would condemn those same authorities
as idiots when they would not dispute that Shakespeare of Stratford
was the author. You don't know what evidence is and you are mentally
incapable of mounting an argument.
PC:
> >> That penmanship is not the sloppiness
> >> we so often see from the hands of the
> >> careless literate. It is the striving of the
> >> quite incompetent. It has some similarity
> >> to the writing of a typical seven-year old.
> >> There is no fluency. This person has only
> >> rarely sought to draw the letters, and is
> >> liable to do it in an uncertain and varying
> >> manner each time.
DH
> > These are your opinions...
PC:
> You don't deny them, of course.
DH:
Actually, I did. I offered the example of modern physicians, all
fully literate, who have notoriously bad, often illegible,
penmanship. You felt compelled to snip that argument because you had
no answer for it.
PC:
> Every
> Stratfordian looking at those 'signatures'
> objectively must be aghast.
DH:
Not at all.
PC:
> It's the
> same for every scrap of evidence in the
> entire field. There is NOTHING that
> supports the Strat 'argument'.
DH:
You obviously do not have the mental ability to understand what
qualifies as evidence that supports an argument. Can you define the
"TOTALLY different nature" of the so-called evidence on which you
rely?
There is plenty of evidence that supports the Strat argument. Your
job is to impeach that evidence -- to show that is not authentic or
reliable. So far you have failed miserably at that task.
PC:
> It isn't an
> argument -- it's a set of very stupid
> assumptions.
DH:
The irony is rich. Your entire case is built on stupid assumptions.
You have no documentary evidence such as that which tends to prove the
Strat argument. All you have is speculation.
Comment: You never did attempt to define what you meant by "evidence
of a TOTALLY different nature."
>Although you make my point by what
> you would "usually consider to be evidence" in this
> particular instance.
You had a point? It isn't what "I" would usually consider to be
evidence. Rather it is the definition of evidence that is generally
and conventionally accepted by reasonable people, as opposed to your
still undefined "evidence of a TOTALLY different nature." More
particularly, it is what constitutes evidence in a legal setting.
>For example, Strats (like
> yourself) routinely ask "Where is the written evidence
> that the Government was involved in a cover-up?"
> going on to say that "We cannot believe in any kind
> of cover-up unless we have documentary proof."
Well, let's take one example. You contend that Thomas Greene was paid
by the conspirators to mind William Shakespeare in Stratford. We
should be able to follow the money and yet you can't produce a single
government record showing any such payment. Of course, even though
you can't produce any such documentary evidence that will not prevent
you from stating, as fact, that the conspirators paid Thomas Greene to
tend to WS in Stratford.
Sadly, you fail to see the problems inherent in treating your
factually unsupported speculations as if they were evidence. If the
choice is between your irrational modus operandi and a method which
relies on and confines itself to facts, I'll take the latter.
> > [a term he has never defined although I have asked him
> > to do so].
>
> When and where?
Answered above.
> If asked for the meaning of any
> fairly common word in the English language,
> I would point you to any convenient dictionary.
> I appreciate that English is not your native
> language, and that you frequently need to look
> up the meaning of such words, but for some
> reason (your Alzheimers?) you constantly fail
> to remember the existence of dictionaries.
Your stupidity and bluster here is glaring. The meaning of "any
fairly common word in the English language" is not the issue here, you
evasive weasel. You have stated that the evidence which supports your
conspiracy theory is "evidence of a TOTALLY different nature" from
that which is conventionally defined as evidence. The fact that you
are, and have been, unable to define what you mean by that concept is
just one more symptom illustrating your irrationality. It is your
term and it is incumbent upon you to explain what you mean by it --
except that you are mentally incapable of doing so.
> >> There is
> >> not a fraction of what would exist IF the Stratford
> >> story were true, and everything in was quite normal
> >> and above-board.
>
> > What should exist according to you?
>
> It would be fairly easy to roughly set out what
> SHOULD exist IF the Stratfordian story was
> true. Many well-educated people are ignorant
> about the details of the 'Stratfordian argument'
Like you, except that I doubt you were well-educated.
> -- and just assume that it is soundly based
> on historical fact.
It is...the facts contained in the historical record are more than
sufficient to support the proposition that WS of Stratford was the
author of the works. You are obviously unable to mount any challenge
to them or rebut them in any logical and coherent fashion.
>Gather together (say) some
> Chinese, Japanese or Russian professors, or
> Ph.D. students, and -- after eliminating the few
> who had been informed of the (supposed)
> history -- ask the rest what documents a
> highly respected author would probably leave
> after his death, especially since his house
> remained in his family's possession for
> 50 years after his death.
That's your answer? Seriously? Ask a bunch of people from around the
world with absolutely no expertise in Elizabethan literature or
history?
> Then ask the group what they would expect
> to see in his will.
I take back what I said earlier...you can still be a source of some
amusement. Your method is to ignore all of the documentary evidence
that exists that tends to prove that WS of Stratford was the author
and ask a bunch of uninformed individuals what they would expect to
find in a writer's Last Will?
> Or tell them that his lawyer was highly
> intelligent, well-educated, and interested in
> literary matters, and ask what record there
> was likely to be of their discussions. Then
> tell them, that in fact there was only one
> record of a conversation between them.
> But what would they expect to see in that
> record.
Right...ignore all of the other documentary evidence and look instead
for what a lawyer might have said about a legal matter.
> Ask them what remembrances were likely
> made by the local town council. Or made
> by the Monarch, government and nation as
> a whole (bearing in mind that the monarch
> had his own personal copy of the Folio, in
> which he made his own notes.)
Remebrances...like a monument in his hometown...like a First Folio.
> Ask them what his wife, daughter, son-in-law,
> and grand-daughter would have said about
> him -- not least on their tombstones.
Why would they have said anything about him on their tombstones?
> > While you're at it why don't you also show why the
> > evidence that does exist does not suffice to support
> > the Stratford man's case. Why is there absolutely
> > no direct evidence of any kind for the proposition
> > that Oxenford wrote the works, and please don't fall
> > back on your conspiracy nonsense?
>
> See -- we are obliged to prove that there was
> a government-inspired cover-up by first denying
> the possibility that there was a government-
> inspired cover-up.
See -- Crowley will first dodge the question about the evidence
supporting the Stratfordian argument. Then he will fall back on his
all-powerful conspiracy theory for which there is no evidence at all,
the lack of such evidence being attributable, so Crowley argues, to
the fact that there was a conspiracy.
> Are you really that dim?
Are you really that irrational. I am not asking you to deny your
conspiracy at all. I'd be satisfied if you simply admitted that it is
conjecture on your part that such a conspiracy existed -- that would
at least show that you were somewhat rational and understood the
concept of evidence as opposed to raw speculation.
I'll change the question just for you. Why don't you produce the
"evidence of a TOTALLY different nature" which you contend supports
the existence of a conspiracy.
> Or did government-inspired cover-ups never
> ever happen in the history of the human
> race?
Nice straw man. How do we know that such cover-ups occurred...because
evidence of the conventional kind [as opposed to your "evidence of a
TOTALLY different nature"] was uncovered.
> >> How come his 'signatures' are so few and so bad?
>
> > Why do we only have one signature from Marlowe?
> > How many signatures do we have from Kyd,
> > Webster, Beaumont, Fletcher, Nashe, Greene,
> > etc.? What makes the signatures "bad" in your
> > expert opinion?
>
> Yeah, yeah, you need to be "an expert" to
> be able to contrast an elegant, well-drawn
> signature from a illegible scrawl.
Notice the dodge. I am using evidence from the period to make a point
that you obviously are unable to handle.
What a dope you are! Surely someone, even as stupid and ignorant as
you, can tell when you are dodging a question?
[...]
> >> This was a time when good calligraphy was the
> >> mark of an educated person. No Strat here has
> >> found a signature of a noble or a gentleman that
> >> was as bad between the years 1200 and 1900 --
> >> in spite of my numerous requests.
>
> > Do you have any signatures from nobes or
> > gentlemen in the last months of their lives?
>
> Three (of the six) of Shagsber's signatures
> are from legal documents signed in 1612,
> four years before he died. They were made
> in London, when the man was well enough to
> travel there -- probably on horseback. He was
> no invalid. And each of them is of the same
> "quality" (i.e. appalling) as those made on his
> will. The hand is strong -- but uneducated.
> They show the writing of a person who does
> NOT know how to write, and who is
> uncomfortable in the use of a pen.
Great argument...the writing shows that he did not know how to write.
> > There are many variables that can change
> > handwriting. That you fail to acknowledge this fact
> > is a symptom of your irrationality.
>
> This hand (in your view) wrote tens of
> thousands of words. Not one of which survive
> in manuscript.
So you say, but many experts in the field say otherwise.
>He would also have written
> numerous letters -- not one of which survive.
Which is not really that surprising.
> And your only recourse is to plead infirmity
> for his six appalling 'signatures'. Do you
> make the same case for his daughters?
I don't give a fig about his daughters.
> And you call this 'rational'?
Yes, it is a rational explanation. Is it rational to treat your
speculations as if they were facts?
> > In addition, it is typical of deniers of reality such as
> > yourself to focus on one piece of evidence to the
> > exclusion of others that contradict your claims.
>
> Eh -- every scrap of information we have about
> the Stratman demonstrates his illiteracy.
This is idotic even for you. The documentary evidence shows the exact
opposite of what you claim. There's even a monumnet to all that he
wrote. And Ben Jonson testifies to the fact that he wrote the works.
Of course, being the irrational clod that you are you will deny that
evidence.
>Of
> course, illiterates don't usually leave much of
> a written record. And, unsurprisingly, what we
> get from the Stratman is 'not much of a written
> record'.
What written records do we have from other playwrights of the era?
> > In this instance, there is a wealth of documentary
> > evidence attesting to the proposition that
> > Shakespeare of Stratford was literate, and yet you
> > can't even begin to admit that such evidence exists
> > [for instance, we know that two of his closest
> > friends wrote letters to him].
>
> Wealthy illiterates OFTEN got (and get) letters
> addressed to them. Do you think Rose Blumkin
> never got any letters?
I see...your speculations are rational, but others are not. It is all
part and parcel of your narcissistic megalomania.
>
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nebraska_Furniture_Mart
>
> > > The others have been rehearsed here time and time
> > > again, with no answer from the Strats.
>
> > This is another symptom of your irrationality -- your
> > repeated assertions that you, and your silly
> > arguments, have never been answered.
>
> Your 'answer' to evidence about the Stratman's
> illiteracy is to ask "what about Marlowe leaving
> only one signature?".
No, you ignoramus. That was in response to your question regarding
why the number of known signatures was "so few"? Are you unable to
keep track of your own arguments? My response is a starting
point...your answer is missing?
> >> What other
> >> author has had illiterate children?
>
> > When are you going to prove that they were, and, if
> > there are thousands of points you could raise, why
> > is this one of the only three or four you ever
> > present.
>
> These are the most striking and most amusing.
> But I raise hundreds -- e.g. the Stratman never
> went to Italy,
More speculatiuon stated as fact...
> whereas we can be certain that
> the author of the canon knew it well.
> The Stratman was never a soldier, whereas we
> can be certain that the author of the canon
> had military experience,
Your certainty is amusing.
> The Stratman had no access to books,
Bullshit.
> whereas we can be certain that the author of
> the canon had read hundreds,
> The Stratman had no education - even IF he
> had attended the local school until he was 13.
> whereas we can be certain that the author of
> the canon had a great one,
Your assumptions turn into facts once again. I'm beginning to see
that your "evidence of a TOTALLY different nature" should be defined
as "what Crowley believes".
> The Stratman knew no language other than
> English,
You were there?
> whereas we can be certain that the
> author of the canon knew French, Italian, Latin
> and more.
> The Stratman had no training in Law whereas
> we can be certain that the author of the canon
> had one.
Mark Twain wrote a legal novel...he had no training in the law.
> We can be certain that the author of the canon
> practised at poetry from an early age, whereas
> the notion of a near-peasant writing poetry (to
> make money!) after a day of cleaning out stables
> (or whatever) is so absurd as to be manifestly a
> joke.
So Crowley has spoken...so it must be believed.
> I could go on and on and on . . . . and
> often do
You certainly do...
> > Can you prove that John Webster's coach-
> > maker father and his mother [the daughter of a
> > blacksmith] were literate?
>
> Note how you dodge the question, and change
> the subject.
It isn't a dodge at all you ignorant ass. Many of the authors of the
time, such as Kit Marlowe and John Webster, came from the lower
classes but were able to rise above their parents. I would note also
that you removed my question from its context without indicating that
you had done so. You are a venal and dishonest prick.
Context: It is a ridiculous point anyway as it has no bearing on
whether or not William Shakespeare could have received an education,
gone to London, and written plays.
> The question was "What other
> author was brought up by illiterate parents in
> household of illiterates?|"
>
> It is not an answer to ask me to prove that the
> parents of every writer were literate. But the
> Websters probably were.
This shows the lengths you will go to to argue your irrational case.
A blacksmith's daughter was literate? A coach-maker was literate?
Garbage.
> They dealt in expensive
> high-quality items. sold only to the very rich. Their
> clients would probably have expected or required
> literacy in such suppliers.
They probably had nothing to do with the very rich, but with their
servants, and there is absolutely nothing to support your moronic
claim that some lord looking for a new coach would expect or require
that the maker of that coach should be literate. This is one more
example of you just making shit up.
> John Webster's father was (like Ben Jonson's
> step-father) wealthy enough to afford to give his
> son a good education, including attendance at
> the Inns of Court.
First, it is not known for certain that the John Webster who attended
the Middle Temple was, in fact, John Webster the author. You state
things as facts that are not established facts. Second, there is no
evidence that his father paid for him to attend the Inns of Court.
Finally, even accepting one and two, that does nothing to tend to
prove that Webster senior was literate.
> >> How come literature and the
> >> theatre in England was the only Renaissance Art
> >> financed by the common people?
>
> > Literature was not, as much of it was
> > generated in an attempt to gain patronage. As
> > for the theatre, what do you think [and I use
> > that word advisedly] that the public theatres
> > were for
>
> They were the rough equivalent of modern
> X-Factor reality TV shows, or Victorian music-
> halls, or Roman circuses. They sold
> entertainment as well as they could and were
> allowed: blood, guts, sex, music spectacle,
> fighting . . whatever. Art was rarely thought
> much of an attraction.
Right. And so title pages which assert that plays were performed at
the public theatres are just one more project undertaken by the
invisible hand of the conspiracy to hoodwink all of the people who
were attending the theatres. Right.
> > [don't bother answering as we've
> > discussed this previously and you are
> > irrationally immune to a consideration of the
> > actual evidence]?
>
> I appreciate that you cannot deal with my answers.
> You prefer fantasy.
I deal with your answers more than I should and your answers are
fantasy.
Dom