Consider the example of a simple SNV occurring at a +100 intronic position:
- NC_000003.11(NM_001904.4):c.1081+100A>T
In the absence of additional information, I would argue that p.(=) is the most appropriate description, as it suggests no changes are expected at the protein level (RNA not analyzed).
However, there is no consensus on this, as the main publicly available annotation systems differ in their predictions:
- The Mutalyzer reports p.(=), which aligns with my understanding
- The Variant Validator reports p.?, indicating an expected effect on the protein level
- The Ensembl VEP system does not report any HGVS protein description for this variant.
As a side question: Is there a specific reason why the HGVS recommendation page mentioned above provides a definition for
p.? and not fpr
p.(?) ? Looking at the RNA section, both
r.? and
r.(?) are specifically defined.
Thanks for any clarifications on these points.
Best regards,
David Hernandez
Sophia Genetics SA