Quant -

8 views
Skip to first unread message

Nareshkumar j

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 12:41:48 PM12/17/11
to GMAT Toppers
If an integer n is to be chosen at random from the integers 1 to 96,
inclusive, what is the
probability that n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8?

A. 1/4
B. 3/8
C. 1/2
D. 5/8
E. 3/4

OA is "D". Is there any shorcut to slove these kind of plms?

Nareshkumar j

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 12:44:46 PM12/17/11
to GMAT Toppers
If n and k are positive integers, is n divisible by 6?
(1) n = k(k + 1)(k - 1)
(2) k – 1 is a multiple of 3.

Is there any shorcut for these kind of plms?

Nareshkumar j

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 12:48:55 PM12/17/11
to GMAT Toppers
At a garage sale, all of the prices of the items sold were different.
If the price of a radio
sold at the garage sale was both the 15th highest price and the 20th
lowest price among
the prices of the items sold, how many items were sold at the garage
sale?
A. 33
B. 34
C. 35
D. 36
E. 37

Could anyone help me in sloving the above pblm?

Nareshkumar j

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 12:52:14 PM12/17/11
to GMAT Toppers
The numbers x and y are three-digit positive integers, and x + y is a
four-digit integer.
The tens digit of x equals 7 and the tens digit of y equals 5. If x <
y, which of the
following must be true?
I. The units digit of x + y is greater than the units digit of either
x or y.
II. The tens digit of x + y equals 2.
III. The hundreds digit of y is at least 5.
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. II and III

Nareshkumar j

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 12:53:08 PM12/17/11
to GMAT Toppers

NEETHU

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 12:53:09 PM12/17/11
to gmat-t...@googlegroups.com
Case 1 :If n is even, n(n+1)(n+2) will be divisible by 8.
Number of even numbers between 1 and 96 = 48

Case 2: If n is odd, and n+1 is a multiple of 8, then n(n+1)(n+2) will be divisible by 8 (Eg: numbers like 7*8*9, 15*16*17)
Number of such groups between 1and 96 = 12

Therefore probability = (48 + 12)/96 = 5/8

Thanks
Neethu


--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "GMAT Toppers" group.
To post to this group, send email to gmat-t...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to gmat-toppers...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/gmat-toppers?hl=en.


Kripa Tewari

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 12:54:42 PM12/17/11
to gmat-t...@googlegroups.com
good question....
n(n+1)(n+2) will be divisible by 8 for all even numbers, i.e. total 48 numbers
also cases in which (n+1) is a multiple of 8 will be divisible by 8
for ex: n=7,15,23.. i.e. total 12 numbers

so total number of such cases is 48+12=60
probability = 60/96 = 5/8
Regards
Kripa
On Sat, Dec 17, 2011 at 11:11 PM, Nareshkumar j <j.nares...@gmail.com> wrote:

NEETHU

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 1:01:14 PM12/17/11
to gmat-t...@googlegroups.com
Answer to garage problem:

Case1: X is the 15th highest price. This means if we arrange everything in decreasing order of prices, there are 14 values greater  than X

Case2 : X is the 20th lowest price. This means if we arrange everything in increasing order of prices, there are 19 values less than X.

Therefore number of items = 14+ 19 + 1 =  34. (Adding 1 because, you have to count X as well.)

Thanks
Neethu

Nareshkumar j

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 1:02:55 PM12/17/11
to GMAT Toppers
The infinite sequence a1, a2,…, an,… is such that a1 = 2, a2 = -3, a3
= 5, a4 = -1, and an =
an-4 for n > 4. What is the sum of the first 97 terms of the sequence?
A. 72
B. 74
C. 75
D. 78
E. 80

I don't know why iam taking more time for these kind of problems!!!!
could any one help me on these?

NEETHU

unread,
Dec 17, 2011, 1:06:09 PM12/17/11
to gmat-t...@googlegroups.com
Answer to "Divisibility by 6" question.

General Rule: Any 3 consecutive numbers will be divisible by 6. So answer is A!!

amith kumar

unread,
Dec 18, 2011, 12:26:46 AM12/18/11
to gmat-t...@googlegroups.com
an =an-4 .This is the crux of the problem so a1=a5 and a2=a6 a3=a7 a4=a8 a5=a6
So the sequence is basically a repetition of a1 a2 a3 a4 The sum is 2+(-3)+5+(-1)=3.So there are 97 terms this sequence of 4 numbers will be repeated for 24 time + the first term in the sequence ie the 97th term
So the sum of the 4 terms* 24 times + the 97th term(which is a1=2)
3(which is the sum of 4 terms)*24(times the sequence is repeated)+2(the 97th term)=74
Hope this is clear
On Sat, Dec 17, 2011 at 11:32 PM, Nareshkumar j <j.nares...@gmail.com> wrote:
The infinite sequence a1, a2,…, an,… is such that a1 = 2, a2 = -3, a3
= 5, a4 = -1, and  for n > 4. What is the sum of the first 97 terms of the sequence?

A. 72
B. 74
C. 75
D. 78
E. 80

I don't know why iam taking more time for these kind of problems!!!!
could any one help me on these?
--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "GMAT Toppers" group.
To post to this group, send email to gmat-t...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to gmat-toppers...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/gmat-toppers?hl=en.




--
Rgds
Amith Ravindra

amith kumar

unread,
Dec 18, 2011, 12:34:56 AM12/18/11
to gmat-t...@googlegroups.com
What would the ans we if (2) is N-1 instead of k-1
--
Rgds
Amith Ravindra

NEETHU

unread,
Dec 18, 2011, 3:01:53 AM12/18/11
to gmat-t...@googlegroups.com
If that is the case then n-1 = 3x (x can be any integer)
ie. n= 3x +1

3x+1  is not divisible by 6. Hence the question can be answered from stmnt 2 alone.(But then there is a conflict between the answers we got from stmt 1 and stmt 2. So this cannot be true. Stmt 2 should be k-1 and not n-1)

Thanks
Neethu
Reply all
Reply to author
Forward
0 new messages