interpretation of phylogenetic signal Kmult statistical test

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Juan Esteban Vrdoljak

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Jan 19, 2022, 12:36:03 PM1/19/22
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Hi all.

I am interested in Kmult statistical test but I have some doubts. I understand the interpretation of Kmult = 1, >1, or <1, but I don’t understand the meaning of the statistical test. For example, I performed this test in my dataset and obtained Kmult = 0.063; the null distribution ranged between 0.03 and 0.13. Suppose K is significant, is there some difference in the interpretation of K if the observed K is to the right or to the left of the null distribution?

On the other hand, suppose Kmult close to 1 (for example, 0.95). In this case, is there some different interpretation if this observed K is to the right of the null distribution (for example, a distribution ranged between 0.5-0.8) or to the left (null distribution ranged 0.99-1.5).

Thank you very much!

Best,

Juan

Adams, Dean [EEOB]

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Jan 19, 2022, 1:41:27 PM1/19/22
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Juan,

 

The test is relative to a random permutation of tips data with respect to the phylogeny. It is a one-tailed test, comparing the observed to values greater or equal to it (i.e., how ‘large’ is the observed relative to the distribution). Following Blomberg et al. 2003, a significant result indicates that there is greater phylogenetic signal than expected.

 

For a more detailed explanation, see: Adams 2014, and parts of Adams & Collyer 2019 (the section on phylogenetic signal).

 

Dean

 

Dr. Dean C. Adams (he/him)

Distinguished Professor of Evolutionary Biology

Director of Graduate Education, EEB Program

Department of Ecology, Evolution, and Organismal Biology

Iowa State University

https://faculty.sites.iastate.edu/dcadams/

phone: 515-294-3834

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Juan Esteban Vrdoljak

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Jan 19, 2022, 5:05:02 PM1/19/22
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Hi Dean, thanks a lot for your quick response!

Ok, I understood that. However, in the biological example, Adams 2014 found K=0.957 and p=0.014 and suggested that "closely related species were more similar to one another in head shape than was expected under a Brownian motion model of evolution." Why is this sentence correct? I understand that Kmult <1 implies that taxa resemble each other phenotypically less than expected under Brownian motion.

Thanks again!
Juan

Adams, Dean [EEOB]

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Jan 19, 2022, 5:08:35 PM1/19/22
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K = 1.0 is not a hard-and fast cut-off. The value, combined with the significance test, helps to make the determination. See also the comments of Blomberg et al. 2003 in the univariate proposal of K and how to interpret tests based on it.

 

This is a challenging issue to be sure. We have more to say about phylogenetic signal and comparison tests of it, in an upcoming paper in MEE (Collyer et al.).

Juan Esteban Vrdoljak

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Jan 19, 2022, 5:30:08 PM1/19/22
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Thanks again for the quick response! I'll be waiting for that paper!

cheers!
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