In "Genomic structural equation modelling provides insights into the multivariate genetic architecture of complex traits" (Nature Human Behaviour 2019), the logistic regression coefficient (log-odds ratio) was standardized as follows in GenomicSEM.
b_logit, = Z / sqrt( v(1−v) * N_total *σ2SNP)
se(b_logit) = 1 / sqrt( v(1−v) * N_total * σ2SNP )
Then the SNP effect was further scaled to the unit-variance liability scale by dividing by the square root of total liability variance:
b_std = b_logit / sqrt( σ2SNP * (b_logit)^2 + π^2/3 ) (Eq. 1)
In "Pervasive Downward Bias in Estimates of Liability-Scale Heritability in GWAS Meta-analysis: A Simple Solution"(Biological Psychiatry, The authors are members of the Genomic SEM research team.), b* is defined instead as the linear regression coefficient of a standardized binary phenotype (assuming balanced case–control design, The 0/1 phenotype was standardized to have mean 0 and variance 1. ):
b* = Z / sqrt( 4 v(1−v)*n_total *σ2SNP) (Eq. 2)
SE(b*) = 1 / sqrt( 4 v(1−v)*n_total* σ2SNP )
and approximately:
b_logit ≈ 2 b* → b* ≈ 0.5*b_logit
I have two questions:
1. Between Eqs. (1) and (2), MTAG seems to standardize the binary phenotype to mean 0 and variance 1 and adopts Eq. (2) (4v(1-v)n is input to MTAG as Neff), whereas Genomic SEM uses Eq. (1). Could you clarify the practical distinction between these two formulations?Many thanks for your clarification and time!
Best regards,
--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Genomic SEM Users" group.
To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to genomic-sem-us...@googlegroups.com.
To view this discussion visit https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/genomic-sem-users/fb762158-9f0f-45be-92e0-21516e23856cn%40googlegroups.com.