Assuming "self" vote counts.
Assuming pirate 6 starts the proceeding, he makes the following offer
1 2 3 4 5 6
$1 $1 $0 $0 $0 $298
With this 1, 2 and 6 would agree for the offer (50%), hence stands valid.
Why 1 & 2 agrees?
Basic case, let's say there are only 2 pirates (1 & 2)
If 2 starts the proceeding, he can take all the money as his vote accounts for 50%. i.e 1 gets nothing
If there are 3 pirates 1 2 3. 2 can exploit the above logic so he will attempt to decline any offer made by 3. But 3 being smart, 3 can offer $1 to 1. pirate 1 also knows the fact that, if he decline this offer, he gets nothing when the turn comes to pirate 2. So he accepts the $1 offer gleefully.
And with 3 or 4 pirates (1, 2, 3, 4), pirate 2 knows that 3 or 4 will make $1 offer to pirate 1 to get 50% or more vote, he will never get a chance. Hence he accepts any offer of $1 from either pirate 5 or 6.
Knowing this, pirate 6 makes the $1 offers to 1 and 2 and claims 50% vote.
Thanks
Shyam Velupula
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You are limited only by your imagination