Is Music Verbal Behavior?

[RFB5...@aol.com]

Fellow listserve members,
It is often said that music, like other art forms, is a means of "expressing"
ourselves. If this is so, then music would be verbal behavior.
(1) Has anyone addressed the question of whether elements of a
musical composition can be mands, tacts, intraverbals, etc? For example, is
the Moonlight Sonata a tact?
(2) Is it possible for music to become a mand, tact, intraverbal,
etc. independent of some history where oral or written language plays a role
in establishing it as a mand, tact, etc? In other words, can music have
verbal primacy over spoken and written repertoires?
(3) Is music not a tact, mand, etc. but rather something that is
manded and tacted and therefore not itself an "expression" (and therefore not
verbal behavior), but rather something (probably a reinforcer) that merely
occasions verbal behavior? And if that's the case, then is music also not
verbal behavior for its composer?
(4) Can an analysis of music as verbal behavior improve our
tactics for teaching music appreciation and music composition? Is listening
to music analogous to reading a book? Behaviorally speaking, is teaching
people to appreciate literature the same as teaching them to appreciate music?

Any clarifications would be appreciated.

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[Wesley Cannon]

In a message dated 6/25/99 6:18:06 PM Central Daylight Time, RFB5...@AOL.COM
writes:

<< (2) Is it possible for music to become a mand, tact, intraverbal,
etc. independent of some history where oral or written language plays a role
in establishing it as a mand, tact, etc? In other words, can music have
verbal primacy over spoken and written repertoires? >>

I will admit to a complete lack of understanding about this mand, tact issue
as I do not recall it ever being taught where I went to school years ago. On
the other hand, I would argue that there are some parts of music that can
evoke a response independent of oral or written language history. I say this
based on the fact that some music can sound very close to natural events such
as a clap of thunder or the sound of rain. I would venture that even a person
that has never developed verbal or language ability would be able to
associate the music's sound to these natural sounds. Of course, any feelings
associated with this would of course be influenced by their reinforcement
history and oral and written history.

[Joseph Cautilli]

Phil Hineline did a master thesis of the subject when he was at Harvard.
If you are interested you may wish to contact him at Temple University.
joe

On Fri, 25 Jun 1999 RFB5...@aol.com wrote:

> Fellow listserve members,
> It is often said that music, like other art forms, is a means of "expressing"
> ourselves. If this is so, then music would be verbal behavior.
> (1) Has anyone addressed the question of whether elements of a
> musical composition can be mands, tacts, intraverbals, etc? For example, is
> the Moonlight Sonata a tact?

> (2) Is it possible for music to become a mand, tact, intraverbal,
> etc. independent of some history where oral or written language plays a role
> in establishing it as a mand, tact, etc? In other words, can music have
> verbal primacy over spoken and written repertoires?

> (3) Is music not a tact, mand, etc. but rather something that is
> manded and tacted and therefore not itself an "expression" (and therefore not
> verbal behavior), but rather something (probably a reinforcer) that merely
> occasions verbal behavior? And if that's the case, then is music also not
> verbal behavior for its composer?
> (4) Can an analysis of music as verbal behavior improve our
> tactics for teaching music appreciation and music composition? Is listening
> to music analogous to reading a book? Behaviorally speaking, is teaching
> people to appreciate literature the same as teaching them to appreciate music?
>
> Any clarifications would be appreciated.
>

[Mark S. Weiss]

Wesley Cannon wrote:
>
> In a message dated 6/25/99 6:18:06 PM Central Daylight Time, RFB5...@AOL.COM
> writes:
>

> << (2) Is it possible for music to become a mand, tact, intraverbal,
> etc. independent of some history where oral or written language plays a role
> in establishing it as a mand, tact, etc? In other words, can music have
> verbal primacy over spoken and written repertoires? >>
>

> I will admit to a complete lack of understanding about this mand, tact issue
> as I do not recall it ever being taught where I went to school years ago. On
> the other hand, I would argue that there are some parts of music that can
> evoke a response independent of oral or written language history. I say this
> based on the fact that some music can sound very close to natural events such
> as a clap of thunder or the sound of rain. I would venture that even a person
> that has never developed verbal or language ability would be able to
> associate the music's sound to these natural sounds. Of course, any feelings
> associated with this would of course be influenced by their reinforcement
> history and oral and written history.
>
>

It also depends upon your definition of music. Consider Cage's music. It
clearly encompasses sounds not *conventionally* considered musical. It
could be that music is the ear (or the temporal lobes, not to mention
association areas of the brain) of the listener.

Mark

[Ted Schoneberger]

In a message dated 6/28/99 7:57:22 AM, mle...@lsumc.edu writes:

<< The behavior of a musician (making music) seems to me to fit
> the definition of verbal behavior. >>

I think Skinner agrees since he cites "blowing a bugle" as an example of
verbal behavior (1957, p. 14).

Ted Schoneberger