|
|
Coefficients |
|
Intercept |
1.70364398 |
|
LNQ |
0.889101451 |
|
LNPM |
0.832783229 |
|
LNV |
-0.349329778 |
| Coefficients | |
| Intercept | 1.673462891 |
| LNPM | 0.834465699 |
| LNV | -0.418656867 |
| 1127 |
| 1251 |
| 1367 |
| 1468 |
| 1593 |
| 1727 |
| 1876 |
| 2044 |
| 2221 |
| 2399 |
| 2588 |
| 2780 |
| 2966 |
| 3168 |
| 3376 |
| 3580 |
Sorry to take you back a few steps, but assuming I have the same regression results, how does the actual cost function look like?
I assume it is as follows, please correct me if I’m wrong…
Total Var Cost = 5.5 x Q^2.4 x PM^2.3 x V^0.7
Avg Var Cost = 5.3 x PM^2.3 x V^0.66
Thanks,
Adi.
| VC | 28.9152 |
| AVC | 0.258171 |
| VC | 33.17368 |
| AVC | 0.265389 |
VC = 5.493931* Q0.889101451 * PM0.832783229 * V- 0.349329778
AVC = 5.330595143 * PM0.834465699 * V- 0.418656867
Carla
She confirmed Carla's approach for Ho=1.
Gabriel
On 3/7/11, alex smirnov <alex.s...@gmail.com> wrote:
> I think you are looking too far, Gabe ;)
>
>
>
> On Mon, Mar 7, 2011 at 12:03 AM, Gabriel Bowers
> <gabrie...@gmail.com>wrote:
>
>> I've spent some time looking at #2 and #3.
>>
>> I can approach this problem in a similar way to the first question on the
>> midterm seeing that the long-linear regression equation is:
>> ln(VC) = ln(a) + Evc,q*ln(q) + Evc,v*ln(v) + Evc,mp*ln(Mp)
>>
>> For economies of scale I could derive:
>> ln(VC) = ln(a+z) + Evc,q*ln(q) --- where z = Evc,v*ln(v) + Evc,mp*ln(Mp)
>> Then identifying VC for two points with different Q, I could see if AVC
>> changed when Q changed.
>>
>> Week #11 where Q = 112 and week #22 where Q = 204:
>> VC 28.9152 AVC 0.258171 VC 33.17368 AVC 0.265389
>>
>> The fact that AVC did not change with ~100% increase in Q indicated that
>> Evc,q may be zero.
>>
>> I sent an email to Yang. I may be looking *too far* into what may be a
--
Sent from my mobile device
Did you consider giving paid tutoring sessions? It's gonna be a hit :)
-----Original Message-----
From: econ_401_w...@googlegroups.com
[mailto:econ_401_w...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Gabriel Bowers
Sent: Monday, March 07, 2011 8:54 AM
To: alex smirnov; econ_401_w...@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Homework 11
AVC = 5.330595143 * PM0.834465699 * V- 0.418656867
Yes, they are consistent. Eavc,q = 0, which implies CRS.
4.
After 5000, AVC = 0.150722578
Since there is constant returns on scale (EAVC, Q = 0), average variable cost and marginal cost will be same. Then you only need the graph for AVC and VC.
Carla, why did you use (coefficient-1) for the t test and not the coefficient itself?
From: econ_401_w...@googlegroups.com [mailto:econ_401_w...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Carla Nunes
Sent: Monday, March 07, 2011 9:49 AM
To: econ_401_w...@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Homework 11
Adi, are you joining forces w/ Alex now? ;)
BTW, here is the rest of the values I got for the other answers.
3.
AVC = 5.330595143 * PM0.834465699 * V- 0.418656867
Yes, they are consistent. Eavc,q = 0, which implies CRS.
4.
After 5000,AVC = 0.150722578
I agree with Alex.
When we do hypothesis testing, we’re trying to reject the null hypothesis. A t-stat of 0.97 means we cannot reject H0, as Alex said. In this case, it means there are no scale economies, or constant returns to scale.
However, I don’t understand why we calculate the t-stat as we did.
For the average cost, when I run the regression with Q in it, the coefficient for Q is -0.11 with a p-value of 0.347. this p-value means that this coefficient is not statistically different from zero, and this is consistent with no scale economies. If there were scale economies, Q had to be also in the average cost function.
Sent from my iPhone
Hi,Have you guys done HW11 yet? The models I came up w/ are below. I was wondering if anybody got the same. I thought of checking before proceeding w/ answering the questions.For VC:
Coefficients Intercept 1.70364398 LNQ 0.889101451 LNPM 0.832783229 LNV -0.349329778For AVC:
Coefficients Intercept 1.673462891 LNPM 0.834465699 LNV -0.418656867 Thx,Carla