Dear Radha
As I say again & again None of the question is a stupid questions. Every questions contains so much in itself.
However the same is not true for answers. There may be stupid answers.
Coming to ur question. Look again in first case we've not considered any extraneous variable. So whatever variance explained (0.152) is there, it is coz of indep var hence the same value or eta squared for the corrected model as well as indep var.
In 2nd attepmt, we've considered one co-variate which is supposedly influence the dep var. So now when we compute the table, its indirect influence is there. Technically speaking when we control the variations of co-variate then the variance explained by indep var will increase to 0.242 and overall Corrected model will also improve.
I cudnt find any more explanation in any of the books :-(
Best wishes
Neeraj