h with bar through it in latex

[Johan Lans]

Hi
I'm wondering how to type an h with a bar through it in latex. The h
is for plancks constant the way it is printed in the Feynman lectures on
physics.

Thanks

[David Kastrup]

Johan Lans <nos...@nospam.com> writes:

\hbar

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David Kastrup, Kriemhildstr. 15, 44793 Bochum
UKTUG FAQ: <URL:http://www.tex.ac.uk/cgi-bin/texfaq2html>

[Johan Lans]

Wow, that was a quick answer. Thanks.

/Johan
David Kastrup skrev:

[Jellby]

Among other things, David Kastrup saw fit to write:

> \hbar

There is also \hslash, I don't know right now which package/font you need
for that.

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[rmb.h...@gmail.com]

> is for plancks constant the way it is printed in the Feynman lectures
> on physics.

If you're feeling fastidious, the \hbar is not just another way of
printing Planck's constant.

It's equal to h/(2\pi), which converts the frequency unit from Hz into
radians per second.

So its Planck's constant in different units; sometimes it's called
Dirac's constant.

[Michael]

"Johan Lans" <nos...@nospam.com> schreef in bericht
news:35fe1$45c4d00c$50d8bcf9$40...@news.chello.se...

In this case it is of course just \hbar.
But if you need a more advanced symbol, it's probably in the LaTeX symbol
list:
http://www.ctan.org/tex-archive/info/symbols/comprehensive/symbols-a4.pdf

Regards

Michael.

[Dan]

On Feb 3, 1:20 pm, "rmb.hoff...@gmail.com" <rmb.hoff...@gmail.com>
wrote:

> > is for plancks constant the way it is printed in the Feynman lectures
> > on physics.
>
> If you're feeling fastidious, the \hbar is not just another way of
> printing Planck's constant.

I don't think he said that. He said "the h is for Planck's constant"
Not "the h-bar is for ..."

>
> It's equal to h/(2\pi), which converts the frequency unit from Hz into
> radians per second.

Dividing by 2\pi converts radians per second to cycles per
second (Hz), because there are 2\pi radians in each cycle.
Perhaps that's what you meant.

Dan

[Jellby]

Among other things, saw fit to write:

>> It's equal to h/(2\pi), which converts the frequency unit from Hz into
>> radians per second.
>
> Dividing by 2\pi converts radians per second to cycles per
> second (Hz), because there are 2\pi radians in each cycle.
> Perhaps that's what you meant.

But the units are energy times time (J·s), no frequency involved. And both
radians and cycles are adymensional anyway.

[Dan]

On Feb 6, 3:41 pm, Jellby <m...@privacy.net> wrote:
> Among other things, saw fit to write:
>
> >> It's equal to h/(2\pi), which converts the frequency unit from Hz into
> >> radians per second.
>
> > Dividing by 2\pi converts radians per second to cycles per
> > second (Hz), because there are 2\pi radians in each cycle.
> > Perhaps that's what you meant.
>
> But the units are energy times time (J·s), no frequency involved.

Actually, frequency is intimately involved: in Planck's original
E = h\nu, the \nu is the frequency. But I see I didn't think enough
about the context. Dividing h by 2\pi is equivalent to multiplying
\nu by 2\pi, which in fact does entail converting the frequency
(\nu not h) from Herz to radians per second.

> radians and cycles are adymensional anyway.

But still involve a conversion factor of 2\pi (necessarily also
nondimensional).

Dan