A local mortgage broker advises me that a private investor
knowledgeable in that particular cottage area would seriously consider
the mortgage, but requires an 11% yield.
To establish what the potential lender will pay (present value based
on 11% yield), the mortgage must be discounted at 11%. In other words,
the face amount must be reduced in order to increase the overall
return from 6% to 11%.
Assume that the my mortgage is based on a 5-year term, with the
investor’s yield expectation remaining the same.
The cost of sale would be reduced significantly given a balloon
payment at end-of-year five (EOY 5). The outstanding balance at the
end of year five is $161,706.07. Alter the amortization of the
mortgage to 60 payments (five years)
Please provide a maths formula for the present value calculated is
$147,933.18 with my cost now at $32,066.82 (180,000–147,933.18).
If I had limited the term to two years, the present value would rise
further to $164,679.43 with Seller cost at $15,320.57 (180,000–
164,679.43).
I don't know how my HP is calculating PV as present value =
$147,933.18, any idea , please guide me via formulas and hints. I like
to verify it by formulas prior to any decision.
Thanks