On 3/25/2013 1:53 PM, anyone wrote:
> On Fri, 22 Mar 2013 19:30:15 -0400, Dan Sutter wrote:
>
>> On 3/20/2013 8:43 PM, anyone wrote in response to my post:
>>
>>> On Wed, 20 Mar 2013 18:59:16 -0400, Dan Sutter wrote:
>>>
> [...]
>>> You don't mention configuration of the WAP, how does it get its IP
>>> address? Is the WAP otherwise configured as pass-through, to some
>>> controller/switch?
>>
>> I Think so.
>> We have a DSL modem connected to a router.
>> The router has two other routers connected to it.
>> One router is our WAP, The other is our private office network.
>> Both second routers get their IP address from the the router connected
>> to the modem.
>> See below...
> [...]
>
> On re-thinking the above, I suspect that and my other scheme won't work. The DSL modem can be operated in pass-
> through, so it doesn't need an IP address or net mask. Also -- should the question arise -- you cannot successfully
> use a switch between the DSL modem and R1, because the ISP leases you only one public IP address at a time.
> Some routers have 'static route' features, it isn't clear that will help you.
Exactly. A switch after the modem will effectively be useless.
>
> Next, unless there is some unusual feature built-in to them, it seems all of the other three routers must be on the
> same subnet; the "R2" and "R3" routers must connect to the primary router "R1" through their respective LAN ports,
> and you get 508 usable IP addresses. If you do nothing else, everything on 'Office' could 'see' everything on 'WiFi',
> and the reverse. To get separation between 'Office' and 'WiFi', you could:
>
> 1. Purchase a second IP address lease from your ISP; configure subnets through different addresses and masks
> 2. Purchase a second line and DSL modem
> 3. Go into the WAP setup, look for "Wireless Isolation". If the feature exists, it may restrict WiFi connections to
> "Internet only", precluding access to any other wired/wireless connection on your network (e.g., Netgear WNDR3700;
> see your user setup manual).
>
Thank you 'anyone' for your ideas.
I will answer all three post here to save text room.
No. I would say our modem is not in "pass-through" mode. It allows us to get a single IP address from
our AT&T DSL provider and supplies it to our first router, R1.
As I understand it, bridge mode would limit the router to a dumb switch (hub).
By using routers, each router wants to set up their own sub-net. They will take the IP address
they're given and "route" the signals (packets) to their own connections (sub-net).
So, Our modem is given an IP address, and R1 sub-nets (obfuscates?) that address to it's connections.
When you connect other routers that are NOT bridged, they will create their own sub nets from the
IP address they get from R1. Virtually creating NEW networks, unable to communicate directly (as a network).
If I didn't mention so before. The entire office network is hardwired and doesn't rely on
wireless.
The wireless is ONLY for our patrons.
The first line in the artical (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subnetwork) you reffered to me is:
A subnetwork, or subnet, is a logically visible subdivision of an IP network.
The practice of dividing a network into two or more networks is called subnetting
(In the first sentence above, the word 'visible' is maybe a bad choice.)
Still disappointing our patrons but
thanks for your thoughts,