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May I draw attention to a different view of Vedaapauru.seyatva and different understandings of the specified Nirukta passage that are discussed in:Aklujkar, Ashok. 2009. "Veda revelation according to Bhart®-hari." In Bhart®hari: Language, Thought and Reality, pp. 1-97. (ed) Chaturvedi, Mithilesh. Delhi: Motilal Banarsidass.
"As with other products of divine activity, the father of a poem is much more difficult to identify than the mother. That the mother is always nature, the realm of the objective considered as a field of communication, no serious criticism can ever deny. But as long as the father of a poem is assumed to be the poet himself, we have once again failed to distinguish literature from discursive verbal structures. The discursive writer writes as an act of conscious will, and that conscious will, along with the symbolic system he employs for it, is set over against the body of things he is describing. But the poet, who writes creatively rather than deliberately, is not the father of his poem; he is at best a midwife, or, more accurately still, the womb of Mother Nature herself: her privates he, so to speak. The fact that revision is possible, that a poet can make changes in a poem not because he likes them better but because they are better, shows clearly that the poet has to give birth to the poem as it passes through his mind. He is responsible for delivering it in as uninjured a state as possible, and if the poem is alive, it is equally anxious to be rid of him, and screams to be cut loose from all the navel-strings and feeding-tubes of his ego."
In this age of science, no book, howsoever sacred, shoulds be considered as 'apouruSeya' if 'apouruSheya' means 1. not coming from man, 2. authorless, 3. of divine origin, 4. divine revelation.
However, if we considered the meaning of 'apouruSeya' as 1. superhuman work, 2. work of extraordinary person(s), 3. not by one person; then the Veda, Surya Siddhanta and some other classics are indeed 'apouruSeya', e.g. it is undisputed that the Veda were created by many RSi or extraordinary persons and have come to us through the Sruti and Vachan parampara.
Rihis were not Mantra Karatas but Mantra Drashatas. What is the difference between creation and spontaneous out pour of poetry. Is revelation same as composition. What is meant by divine. What is meant by non divine. What is the difference between revelation and composition. Is revelation equivalent to belief. What’s verbal testimony. Is it an experience which cannot be communicated but hints about how to experience such experience. Does experience mean one persons subjective belief. Can experience be objectified. Does experience means revelation. If answers to these questions which given by various great scholars of the past and present keeping the Indian thought development in mind be given by scholars then a possible answer can be arrived. Each word is technical in its own way. Answers may lead to further questions which leads to further answers till all questions are resolved is it possible?
Regards
Ajit Gargeshwari
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अनादिम् अव्यवच्छिन्नां श्रुतिम् आहुर् अकर्तृकाम् /
शिष्टैर् निबध्यमाना तु न व्यवच्छिद्यतॆ स्मृतिः // वाक्य_१।१७२ //
अविभागाद् विवृत्तानाम् अभिख्या स्वप्नवच् छ्रुतौ /
भावतत्त्वं तु विज्ञाय लिङ्गॆभ्यॊ विहिता स्मृतिः // वाक्य_१।१७३ //
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1. Prof. Deshpande, you agreed that " ideas of impersonal origin of the Vedas are sporadically found in early Vedic texts". Thus " Both of these alternatives (which) are different ways of answering attacks on the Vedas by Buddhists and Jains, who in their arguments highlight the man-made nature of the Vedas (Pali: isayo mantānaṃ kattāro = Skt. ṛṣayaḥ mantrāṇām kartāraḥ), and that these Ṛṣis were ignorant and should not be followed as spiritual guides (cf. Tevijja Sutta, Tripiṭaka). " (word in parantheses added by me), should be seen , not as invented answers by the answering schools but as their invoking of the already available material as answers.2. AadaraNIya Vidyasankarji, can one say that the word(s) mantrakr̥t etc. found in the Veda mantras carry the meaning which is in contrast with the meaning of the mantra drashṭā ?or one needs to do a samanvaya of the expression mantrakr̥t /mantrakartā in consonance with the idea of mantradrashṭā to go with the ēkavākyatā of the different expressions in the s'ruti?I thinkthe main point of concern in using either word mantrakartā or mantradrashṭā is whether we attribute the 'meaning' of the mantra to be 'meant by' = intended by- the mantrakartā / mantradrashṭā or not. Can we see any āchārya of the āstika paramparā , while quoting any s'rutivaakya for praamaaṇya, quoting the name of the r̥ṣi and saying, 'this is the intention of the r̥ṣi of the mantra or this is the upadēśa of the r̥ṣi of the mantra' ? or do they invariably say this IS THERE in śruti and hence is pramāṇa ?
On Sun, Feb 5, 2017 at 7:59 AM, Vidyasankar Sundaresan <svidya...@gmail.com> wrote:
Indeed, Prof. Deshpande. I am of the opinion that even the uttara mImAMsA view of veda prAmANya and apaurusheyatva is a lot more elastic than and not completely indebted to the pUrva SAstra. This is clear from the two different interpretations that Sankara bhagavatpAda gives to the third sUtra, SAstrayonitvAt.महत ऋग्वेदादेः शास्त्रस्य अनेकविद्यास्थानोपबृंहितस्य प्रदीपवत्सर्वार्थावद्योतिनः सर्वज्ञकल्पस्य योनिः कारणं ब्रह्म ।अथवा यथोक्तमृग्वेदादिशास्त्रं योनिः कारणं प्रमाणमस्य ब्रह्मणो यथावत्स्वरूपाधिगमे ।
Only the second interpretation, taking SAstrayoni as a bahuvrIhi and prefaced with an athavA, would fit in completely with the mImAMsaka view of apaurusheyatva. Under the first interpretation, SAstrayoni is a tatpurusha and if brahman is to be described as the yoni of RgvedAdi SAstra, that is closer to the nyAya position, albeit coupled with a svataH-pramANya view. advaita vedAntins hold that brahman is nirguNa and not a purusha, so there is a different flavor of apaurusheyatva as compared to pUrva mImAMsA. And this more nyAya like approach to SAstra would be especially strengthened for non-advaita vedAntins who insist that brahman is always necessarily saguNa, i.e. ISvara.Namaskaras,Vidyasankar
On Saturday, February 4, 2017 at 4:57:02 PM UTC-5, Madhav Deshpande wrote:
Thanks, Vidyasankar, for pointing out that there are alternative views in the tradition that calls the Ṛṣis mantrakṛt. This is not only found in the post Vedic works like Kālidāsa's Raghuvaṃśa (cf. apy agraṇīr mantrakṛtām ṛṣīṇām kuśāgrabuddhe kuśalī gurus te), but one sees this view in the earliest portions of the Ṛgveda. The Ṛṣis are referred to as Kāru "maker, creator", and the process of creating a mantra described using the verb kṛ - ( saktum iva titaunā punanto yatra dhīrā manasā vācam akrata I atrā sakhāyaḥ sakhyāni jānate bhadraiṣām lakṣmīr nihitādhi vāci II (RV 10.71.2)). While ideas of impersonal origin of the Vedas are sporadically found in early Vedic texts (cf. Puruṣasūkta: tasmād yajñāt sarvahuta ṛcaḥ sāmāni jajñire / chandāṃsi jajñire tasmād yajus tasmād ajāyata),the particular view of the Vedas as Apauruṣeya is one of the alternative views that develops in Mīmāṃsā,--
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1. Prof. Deshpande, you agreed that " ideas of impersonal origin of the Vedas are sporadically found in early Vedic texts". Thus " Both of these alternatives (which) are different ways of answering attacks on the Vedas by Buddhists and Jains, who in their arguments highlight the man-made nature of the Vedas (Pali: isayo mantānaṃ kattāro = Skt. ṛṣayaḥ mantrāṇām kartāraḥ), and that these Ṛṣis were ignorant and should not be followed as spiritual guides (cf. Tevijja Sutta, Tripiṭaka). " (word in parantheses added by me), should be seen , not as invented answers by the answering schools but as their invoking of the already available material as answers.2. AadaraNIya Vidyasankarji, can one say that the word(s) mantrakr̥t etc. found in the Veda mantras carry the meaning which is in contrast with the meaning of the mantra drashṭā ?or one needs to do a samanvaya of the expression mantrakr̥t /mantrakartā in consonance with the idea of mantradrashṭā to go with the ēkavākyatā of the different expressions in the s'ruti?I thinkthe main point of concern in using either word mantrakartā or mantradrashṭā is whether we attribute the 'meaning' of the mantra to be 'meant by' = intended by- the mantrakartā / mantradrashṭā or not. Can we see any āchārya of the āstika paramparā , while quoting any s'rutivaakya for praamaaṇya, quoting the name of the r̥ṣi and saying, 'this is the intention of the r̥ṣi of the mantra or this is the upadēśa of the r̥ṣi of the mantra' ? or do they invariably say this IS THERE in śruti and hence is pramāṇa ?
On Sun, Feb 5, 2017 at 7:59 AM, Vidyasankar Sundaresan <svidya...@gmail.com> wrote:
Indeed, Prof. Deshpande. I am of the opinion that even the uttara mImAMsA view of veda prAmANya and apaurusheyatva is a lot more elastic than and not completely indebted to the pUrva SAstra. This is clear from the two different interpretations that Sankara bhagavatpAda gives to the third sUtra, SAstrayonitvAt.महत ऋग्वेदादेः शास्त्रस्य अनेकविद्यास्थानोपबृंहितस्य प्रदीपवत्सर्वार्थावद्योतिनः सर्वज्ञकल्पस्य योनिः कारणं ब्रह्म ।अथवा यथोक्तमृग्वेदादिशास्त्रं योनिः कारणं प्रमाणमस्य ब्रह्मणो यथावत्स्वरूपाधिगमे ।
Only the second interpretation, taking SAstrayoni as a bahuvrIhi and prefaced with an athavA, would fit in completely with the mImAMsaka view of apaurusheyatva. Under the first interpretation, SAstrayoni is a tatpurusha and if brahman is to be described as the yoni of RgvedAdi SAstra, that is closer to the nyAya position, albeit coupled with a svataH-pramANya view. advaita vedAntins hold that brahman is nirguNa and not a purusha, so there is a different flavor of apaurusheyatva as compared to pUrva mImAMsA. And this more nyAya like approach to SAstra would be especially strengthened for non-advaita vedAntins who insist that brahman is always necessarily saguNa, i.e. ISvara.Namaskaras,Vidyasankar
On Saturday, February 4, 2017 at 4:57:02 PM UTC-5, Madhav Deshpande wrote:
Thanks, Vidyasankar, for pointing out that there are alternative views in the tradition that calls the Ṛṣis mantrakṛt. This is not only found in the post Vedic works like Kālidāsa's Raghuvaṃśa (cf. apy agraṇīr mantrakṛtām ṛṣīṇām kuśāgrabuddhe kuśalī gurus te), but one sees this view in the earliest portions of the Ṛgveda. The Ṛṣis are referred to as Kāru "maker, creator", and the process of creating a mantra described using the verb kṛ - ( saktum iva titaunā punanto yatra dhīrā manasā vācam akrata I atrā sakhāyaḥ sakhyāni jānate bhadraiṣām lakṣmīr nihitādhi vāci II (RV 10.71.2)). While ideas of impersonal origin of the Vedas are sporadically found in early Vedic texts (cf. Puruṣasūkta: tasmād yajñāt sarvahuta ṛcaḥ sāmāni jajñire / chandāṃsi jajñire tasmād yajus tasmād ajāyata),the particular view of the Vedas as Apauruṣeya is one of the alternative views that develops in Mīmāṃsā,--
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Nagaraj PaturiHyderabad, Telangana, INDIA.Former Senior Professor of Cultural StudiesFLAME School of Communication and FLAME School of Liberal Education,(Pune, Maharashtra, INDIA )
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or one needs to do a samanvaya of the expression mantrakr̥t /mantrakartā in consonance with the idea of mantradrashṭā to go with the ēkavākyatā of the different expressions in the s'ruti?I thinkthe main point of concern in using either word mantrakartā or mantradrashṭā is whether we attribute the 'meaning' of the mantra to be 'meant by' = intended by- the mantrakartā / mantradrashṭā or not. Can we see any āchārya of the āstika paramparā , while quoting any s'rutivaakya for praamaaṇya, quoting the name of the r̥ṣi and saying, 'this is the intention of the r̥ṣi of the mantra or this is the upadēśa of the r̥ṣi of the mantra' ? or do they invariably say this IS THERE in śruti and hence is pramāṇa ?
वस्तुतः वेदनित्यत्वस्थापनानन्तरमेव वेदापौरुषेयत्वस्थापनात् नित्यत्वे सति वेदानां पौरुषेयत्वशङ्कैव नोदियादित्यपि बोध्यम् ।
ब्रह्मसूत्रे
अत एव च नित्यत्वं, समाननामरूपत्वादावृत्तावप्यविरोधो दर्शनात्स्मृतेश्च
इति सूत्राभ्यामेतत् सिद्धान्तितम् ।
रामानुजः
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प्रविभागॆ यथा कर्ता तया कार्यॆ प्रवर्ततॆ /
1. Prof. Deshpande, you agreed that " ideas of impersonal origin of the Vedas are sporadically found in early Vedic texts". Thus "Both of these alternatives (which) are different ways of answering attacks on the Vedas by Buddhists and Jains, who in their arguments highlight the man-made nature of the Vedas (Pali: isayo mantānaṃ kattāro = Skt. ṛṣayaḥ mantrāṇām kartāraḥ), and that these Ṛṣis were ignorant and should not be followed as spiritual guides (cf. Tevijja Sutta, Tripiṭaka). " (word in parantheses added by me), should be seen , not as invented answers by the answering schools but as their invoking of the already available material as answers.2. AadaraNIya Vidyasankarji, can one say that the word(s) mantrakr̥t etc. found in the Veda mantras carry the meaning which is in contrast with the meaning of the mantra drashṭā ?or one needs to do a samanvaya of the expression mantrakr̥t /mantrakartā in consonance with the idea of mantradrashṭā to go with the ēkavākyatā of the different expressions in the s'ruti?
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Whatever you have answered is beside the point. Thank you for having answered
Regards
Ajt Gargeshwari
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नमो विद्वद्भ्यःDo you mean अकृताभ्यागमम् - - न कृतम् किन्तु प्राप्तम् ? -- I rather think it can be , because Patanjali says - छन्दांसि न क्रियन्ते , नित्यानि छन्दांसि (प्राप्तानीति शेषः) ।’ अभ्यागमः ’ is used in the sense of प्राप्ति --का त्वं शुभे कस्य परिग्रहो वाकिं वा मदभ्यागमकारणं ते ।आचक्ष्व मत्वा वशिनां रघूणांमनः परस्त्रीविमुखप्रवृत्ति ॥ ( रघुवंशः - 16)धन्यो’स्मिDr.Korada Subrahmanyam
Professor of Sanskrit, CALTS,
University of Hyderabad,
Ph:09866110741(M),91-40-23010741(R),040-23133660(O)Skype Id: Subrahmanyam KoradaOn Tue, Feb 7, 2017 at 7:13 AM, Aurobind Padiyath <aurobind...@gmail.com> wrote:Vidvan Prof Subhramanyaji,
Will then the अपौरषेयं come under अकृत अभ्यागमं category? A small doubt.
Aurobind Padiyath
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Aurobind
वेदानामपौरुषेयत्वविषये
अत्र ब्रह्मसूत्रभाष्यव्याख्यानावसरे रत्नप्रभाकारै: शास्त्रयोनित्वाधिकरणे जगत्कारणत्वेन अनुमितं ब्रह्मण: सर्वज्ञत्वं वेदहेतुत्वेनापि प्रदर्शितम् || अपि च वेदानां नित्यत्वे ब्रह्मण: शास्त्रयोनित्वं नास्तीति , ब्रह्मण: वेदकर्तृकत्वे तेषामपौरुषेयत्वमेव न घटते इति शङ्कायां – यत्र ह्यर्थज्ञानपूर्वकं वाक्यज्ञानं वाक्य सृष्टौ कारणं तत्र पौरुषेयता, अत्र च परमेश्वर: स्वकृत पूर्वकल्पीयक्रमवन्तं वेदराशिं तदर्थांश्च युगपज्जानन्न्नेव करोतीति न वेदस्य पौरुषेयता इति वेदानामपौरुषेयत्वं साधितम् ||
मया एवं संभाव्यते यद्भगवद्गीतायां
वेदैश्च सर्वैरहमेव वेद्य: वेदान्तकृद्वेदविदेवचाहम्
इत्यत्र ‘वेदवित्’ इति पदेन परमेश्वर: वेदवेत्ता एव, न कर्ता इत्यपि ज्ञातुं शक्यते ||