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Just as a service to those who might be otherwise naively misled by the title, content and clippings from the original post:This study only postdates massive Aryan invasion (/ migration or whatever) to after core IVC/ rAkhigarhi times.
After all, despite massive Islamic male invasions to India lasting several centuries, they could not convert IA speakers to IIr or Turkic, and could convert a mere 15-20% of the population till the 19th century to Islam. So why are we assuming that a group of Yamanya invaders could effect all over Pakistan, India etc., what Muslim invaders were unable to? Even in ancient India, we have had massive invasions by Greeks, Huns, Shakas (the Yuga Purana notes that they slaughtered 1 in 4 inhabitants in NW India, and the flight of many Brahmanas to peninsular Indian coincides with their invasions) but no massive replacement of language, religion or culture.
or that a non Dravidian language was spoken there.
If Vasant Shinde is a co-author of the paper, but says something different in newspaper interviews, that surely says something, especially when haters like Steve Farmer have commented off and on that Shinde has turned Hindu nationalist!
--VishalOn Saturday, September 7, 2019, 04:06:29 AM CDT, विश्वासो वासुकेयः <vishvas...@gmail.com> wrote:
On Saturday, September 7, 2019 at 8:58:09 AM UTC+5:30, Sati Shankar wrote:NamasteA scientific exploration ends the myth created artificially...Best WishesSati ShankarJust as a service to those who might be otherwise naively misled by the title, content and clippings from the original post:This study only postdates massive Aryan invasion (/ migration or whatever) to after core IVC/ rAkhigarhi times.--https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/bvparishat/f0367847-61d0-4ff8-833d-2aefd3ee88c8%40googlegroups.com
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Given the sweeping claims made in the paper (that are aligned 100% with AIT scenarios), it is pertinent that some questions be asked about this paper:1. The authors cite mere 1 reference #61 to hang their hat on the premise that in ancient times, languages spread primarily by movements of people.2. If the IE languages arrived in N India via Yamanya invaders who were all males, the same should have happened on the Iranian plateau which is Indo-Iranian. Unless I missed something, the paper is silent about how Iranian language spread on the Iranian Pleateau is mirrored by genetic movements.
"This shows that North Eurasian–related ancestry affected Turan well before the spread of descendants of Yamnaya Steppe pastoralists into the region. We can exclude the possibility that the Yamnaya were the source of this North Eurasian–related ancestry, as they had more Eastern European Hunter Gatherer (EEHG)–related than WSHG-related ancestry, and they also carried high frequencies of mitochondrial DNA haplogroup type U5a as well as Y chromosome haplogroup types R1b or R1a that are absent in ancient DNA sampled from Iran and Turan in this period (tables S93 and S94) (13)."
5. While talking about the languages spoken in the Indus Sarasvati area., they make two suggestions - one is the Indological viewpoint that proto Dravidian was spoken (and here, the authors reference the questionable view not controverted that Brahui language is indigenous to Baluchistan),
The Yamnaya and Harappans were both pagans in your opinion, with the latter having lesser organizational/conservative strengths. These are both unsubstantiated assumptions.
We do not know if the social and sacral structure of Yamnaya corresponded to that of the Vedic people; and archaeological evidence shows that the Harappans had a well defined social structure (high town, lower town, streets with agglomeration of people with specific occupations etc.).
And what makes you think that Muslims had a less cohesive social structure as compared to Yamnaya?
The analogy given is quite opaque. As they say, "When in doubt, mumble."
Unless you want to argue that Brahmanas were cruel, alpha males who imposed their language, religion etc on 80% people in the Indian subcontinent!
VishalOn Saturday, September 7, 2019, 11:41:05 AM CDT, विश्वासो वासुकिजः (Vishvas Vasuki) <vishvas...@gmail.com> wrote:A few comments on these good questions:On Sat, Sep 7, 2019 at 9:35 PM 'Vishal Agarwal' via भारतीयविद्वत्परिषत् <bvpar...@googlegroups.com> wrote:After all, despite massive Islamic male invasions to India lasting several centuries, they could not convert IA speakers to IIr or Turkic, and could convert a mere 15-20% of the population till the 19th century to Islam. So why are we assuming that a group of Yamanya invaders could effect all over Pakistan, India etc., what Muslim invaders were unable to? Even in ancient India, we have had massive invasions by Greeks, Huns, Shakas (the Yuga Purana notes that they slaughtered 1 in 4 inhabitants in NW India, and the flight of many Brahmanas to peninsular Indian coincides with their invasions) but no massive replacement of language, religion or culture.- Elephant and whale are both "Massive" - one is much more massive than the other :-)- In terms of consequences: Islamic invasion of a pagan population (and one with a well established conservative social structure) is hardly comparable to the invasion of one pagan population over another (especially one with presumably lesser organizational/ conservative strengths).
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Please avoid opinions on each other.
This thread is deteriorating.
Please discuss the the data, techniques, algorithms in the paper.Be more analytic and scientific.
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Some of my observations (based on understanding of mathematics used in the genetic study rather than genetics itself):
1) The latest genetic studies lend a good deal of weightage (Harvard is not supposed to that) to Indian civilisational by inferring "independent" origins of agriculture within the subcontinent. A good start, many other facets (origin of astronomy etc) directly or indirectly related to agri should come along.
2) Ancient DNA should be combined with present DNA to get the fullest possible picture. Underhill's study (sound logic) has already indicated R1a origin in Iran. This corroborates with well-understood westwards cline of P1 (immediate ancestor to R) from "Southeast Asia".
3) PCA analysis (fig A) in Narasimhan's reveals an Iranian-IVC cline typical of a unidimensional spread of Indus elites (non-brahmin related burial-types) towards Iran.
4) With more aDNA data from Northern India (looks unlikely with present tech, and because of cremation practice) the representative basis spread is more likely to match the present spread (indicated by the flanking evident in PCA by Iranian).
5) The Parashurama episode (invasion from Iran) bears out a fact that Brahmin-related ancestory derived certain amount of influence within the subcontinent from their western networks (and not from magical powers as popularly believed). This by no means means that Vaidika isn't representative of Hinduism in general (independent Vaidika studies themselves).
6) Swat valley (gAndhAra) population displacement, on the other hand, should be understood in the context of attested Central Asian incursions from 1000 BCE onwards.
7) With the rate scientific progress is going on, I think it may take another 200 years to come to mainstream understanding of complex state of ancestories in the subcontinent. Statistics, in particular, fairs poorly at grasping the disproportional effects that a minisculity of "data points" can exert.
On the Indian side of the story, Varna far from being an outcome of complexity/diversity, rather could be nearly at the cause of it.
It’s just that in ordinary life there are certain norms of addressing a person who is over three decades senior to oneself. It doesn’t matter whether we agree or disagree with this person. Yes, BVP is an online community, but I hope that BVP still upholds certain basics of respect for elders.
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Your examples below actually do not apply to the 'Aryanization' of 80% of the Indian subcontinent which involved a complete loss of original place names, language (even Kuiper's over-enthusiastic hunt for loan words in the RV yields a bare 4% of vocab in the RV that is 'non IA' in origin), religion/culture without any evidence in archaeology, literature, archeo-astronomy etc etc.In Indonesia, they retained their original language despite ingress of Hinduism, Buddhism and Islam albeit with a heavy borrowing from Indic languages. They have written traditions about arrival or Brahmins/Kshatriyas, and then Muslim merchants from India and what not. The movement of Indians into Indonesia/Kampuchea is clearly seen archaeologically. Ditto with Kampuchea. And even on the Indian side, we have customs like the Bali Yatra in Odisha.The Manipur valley itself is like 500 times smaller than the area where IA norms spread; and the way Hinduism spread in that region with the strong push by rulers like Gharib Niwaz at the cost of local traditions is more of an anomaly as to how Hinduism spread elsewhere. The valley already had Ramanandis from ancient times, and there is plentiful evidence in literature as to how this all happened among the Meities. Plus they have preserved their language and so on. The Manipur valley and Indonesia/Kampuchea etc are outside of the Vedic core area of Kuru-Panchala.
The surviving Vedic literature is six times the length of the Bible and yet we do not see any hint of an invasion in them or any migration from Central Asia.
Like I said earlier, if the Steppe genes are more prevelant in the Brahmanas, one must not fall blindly into the temptation of seeing Aryan invasions and instead explore the historical causes.
The article talks about Tiwaris, Bhumihars and 'Pandits' without divulging much raw data. There was a wholesale massacre of Kshatriya clans during various foreign invasions in Indian history. In regions in NW India like Gandhara, Madra etc., there was a selective flight of Brahmanas and Kshatriyas into the interior of India
Aridity happened only towards the very end in the upper Sarasvati regions - which were the abode of Puru-Bharatas, and hence, they were more effective in preserving their own religious traditions. No wonder their influence is dominating in the Rigveda.
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On Sun, Sep 8, 2019 at 8:00 PM 'Vishal Agarwal' via भारतीयविद्वत्परिषत् <bvpar...@googlegroups.com> wrote:Your examples below actually do not apply to the 'Aryanization' of 80% of the Indian subcontinent which involved a complete loss of original place names, language (even Kuiper's over-enthusiastic hunt for loan words in the RV yields a bare 4% of vocab in the RV that is 'non IA' in origin), religion/culture without any evidence in archaeology, literature, archeo-astronomy etc etc.In Indonesia, they retained their original language despite ingress of Hinduism, Buddhism and Islam albeit with a heavy borrowing from Indic languages. They have written traditions about arrival or Brahmins/Kshatriyas, and then Muslim merchants from India and what not. The movement of Indians into Indonesia/Kampuchea is clearly seen archaeologically. Ditto with Kampuchea. And even on the Indian side, we have customs like the Bali Yatra in Odisha.The Manipur valley itself is like 500 times smaller than the area where IA norms spread; and the way Hinduism spread in that region with the strong push by rulers like Gharib Niwaz at the cost of local traditions is more of an anomaly as to how Hinduism spread elsewhere. The valley already had Ramanandis from ancient times, and there is plentiful evidence in literature as to how this all happened among the Meities. Plus they have preserved their language and so on. The Manipur valley and Indonesia/Kampuchea etc are outside of the Vedic core area of Kuru-Panchala.Good - the main point of these examples was to illustrate how Hindu memes, transported by their conservatives, more or less supplant native relatively-looser traditions with considerable ease - even with enthusiastic acceptance. Now, even if ALL the placenames are not sanskritized or if 100% of the language is AryAnized, the facts suffice to make the intended point. Filipino to Tamil, there are a lot (going well beyond half the vocabulary) of sanskrit/ IA loan words and ideas as you've noted. If you had an influx of scale similar to that of IA invasion of North India or Sinhala invasion of Lanka - you would see more drastic replacement after a millenium of settlement. As significant as Hindu migrations were to these other regions, they were not of similar scale.The surviving Vedic literature is six times the length of the Bible and yet we do not see any hint of an invasion in them or any migration from Central Asia.There are plenty of hints of steppe homes, which have been noted since the time of the brilliant BG Tilak. But, it won't do to bring them up because you'll easily do some interpretive gymnastics.Like I said earlier, if the Steppe genes are more prevelant in the Brahmanas, one must not fall blindly into the temptation of seeing Aryan invasions and instead explore the historical causes.The article talks about Tiwaris, Bhumihars and 'Pandits' without divulging much raw data. There was a wholesale massacre of Kshatriya clans during various foreign invasions in Indian history. In regions in NW India like Gandhara, Madra etc., there was a selective flight of Brahmanas and Kshatriyas into the interior of IndiaElephant in the room is that Steppe genes are highly correlated with IA core memes and language. Unless you're arguing that somehow non-steppe-gene-carrying brAhmaNa-s were massacred out, you've got to admit that they were outside greater India before 2kBC IF you agree that aDNA extracted is representative (which you don't, but that's like grasping at straws at this point). Even if you say that IA core memes and language spread from IVC area west (where they were native) all the way to Iceland - you still have the problem that non-"steppe" Indian gene-lines clearly found in the region aren't found in old Europe.
Aridity happened only towards the very end in the upper Sarasvati regions - which were the abode of Puru-Bharatas, and hence, they were more effective in preserving their own religious traditions. No wonder their influence is dominating in the Rigveda.As an aside, this tendency towards geographical determinism underplays true genius and greater virility the sages and warriors of kuru-pAnchala realm might have had (even according to extant religious traditions). Ditto with IVC collapse and IA invasion.
And of course, I'd like to repeat that burials were nor the norm either in IVC, or in the Vedic culture. The skeletons from Rakhigarhi or Chitra/Swat are non representative of these cultures or culture.Vishal
On Saturday, September 7, 2019, 07:26:44 PM CDT, विश्वासो वासुकिजः (Vishvas Vasuki) <vishva...@gmail.com> wrote:
On Sat, Sep 7, 2019 at 11:26 PM 'Vishal Agarwal' via भारतीयविद्वत्परिषत् <bvpar...@googlegroups.com> wrote:The Yamnaya and Harappans were both pagans in your opinion, with the latter having lesser organizational/conservative strengths. These are both unsubstantiated assumptions.Not quite - You can see how Hinduism spread to south India, then to Indonesia / Cambodia etc.. Similarly, Hinduism more or less supplanted native traditions in North East India (before the advent of Christianity) - take the case of Meiteis. These did involve significant gene flow as well as meme-flow. In these cases, we observe the difference I stated. So, it makes sense to ascribe similar cause to a similar outcome in the distant past.Even otherwise, the point is that one pagan population quite willingly accepts the cults and mores of another (eg: popularity of Isis cults in Europe, not to mention examples from India which I won't mention so as to not start another digression.)We do not know if the social and sacral structure of Yamnaya corresponded to that of the Vedic people; and archaeological evidence shows that the Harappans had a well defined social structure (high town, lower town, streets with agglomeration of people with specific occupations etc.)."Well defined social structure" does not imply equally strong religious conservative strength. Mongols (especially after the reorganization by the great lord Chinggiz) had splendid and effective structure - yet, they came to be more buddhist than shamanistic.And what makes you think that Muslims had a less cohesive social structure as compared to Yamnaya?I don't. The IA invaders had "dharma" and a highly effective conservative core, which gave them the edge. (I don't think it is some teme like chariots or gene like lactose tolerance which can explain the massive invasion from the Ural area into Europe and Asia.) This effective structure transferred over quite easily to each land they spread to, leading to secondary expansions such as that of the Dravidians into South India, NE India, SE Asia. Muslim invasion had to contend with this.The analogy given is quite opaque. As they say, "When in doubt, mumble."Well, since I sympathize with your predicament that objective Science consistently proves you wrong leading to trauma and comprehension deficit - I can help you a bit with your incomprehension. How "massive" was your "massive" Greek invasion (We have good records of Alex's "massive" army)? How massive was the Turk invasion relative to Indian population (ie how much genetic footprint do we observe among Indian mulsims today)?Unless you want to argue that Brahmanas were cruel, alpha males who imposed their language, religion etc on 80% people in the Indian subcontinent!That's the narrative our enemies will spin - quite the opposite of what we should say (rather than obsessing over some creationist type denialism).
--VishalOn Saturday, September 7, 2019, 11:41:05 AM CDT, विश्वासो वासुकिजः (Vishvas Vasuki) <vishva...@gmail.com> wrote:A few comments on these good questions:On Sat, Sep 7, 2019 at 9:35 PM 'Vishal Agarwal' via भारतीयविद्वत्परिषत् <bvpar...@googlegroups.com> wrote:After all, despite massive Islamic male invasions to India lasting several centuries, they could not convert IA speakers to IIr or Turkic, and could convert a mere 15-20% of the population till the 19th century to Islam. So why are we assuming that a group of Yamanya invaders could effect all over Pakistan, India etc., what Muslim invaders were unable to? Even in ancient India, we have had massive invasions by Greeks, Huns, Shakas (the Yuga Purana notes that they slaughtered 1 in 4 inhabitants in NW India, and the flight of many Brahmanas to peninsular Indian coincides with their invasions) but no massive replacement of language, religion or culture.- Elephant and whale are both "Massive" - one is much more massive than the other :-)- In terms of consequences: Islamic invasion of a pagan population (and one with a well established conservative social structure) is hardly comparable to the invasion of one pagan population over another (especially one with presumably lesser organizational/ conservative strengths).
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1) As I understand a lot of significant haplogroup diversification occurred in the plains of U.P. on the SE Asia - Iranian cline.
2) On intuitive understanding:
Europian ancestry comes out of "Father Iran" and "Mother Russia". I am not being literal though; Western attitudes towards these two powers even to this day (even when Iran has ceased to be the superpower it was) makes way for such intuition. My point is: this all makes sense at intuitive level, and is far from being convoluted. No one is saying that Indian genes went over to Western Europe; Indian culture (mostly language only) rode over the back of Iranian political power.
3) Indian researchers should focus on the ancestry of steppe people. And they should speak their minds (even if they believe in AIT) in the public (this is how progress is made). Also, since the genetic histories/ causes are not linearly separated (back and forth migrations), ANN techniques (or adaptations there of) should be adapted in genetic studies (ask your Maths departments).
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Practically everything is possible on this earth. It is even possible that human beings are descendant from extra-terrestrial aliens. But how probable is it that this did really happen? Almost zero. My point is that a mere demonstration that the occurrence of a historical is possible is not a sufficient proof that it did occur. One also needs to demonstrate that the probability of that possibility having become a reality is high. In short, to establish a case, one must make it likely, not simply ‘not impossible’.
The conventional Aryan Invasion/Migration Theories and their new Siamese twins that are delivered each passing day imagine a unique situation in South Asia around 1500 BCE. It is a situation that is a simultaneous combination of several independent and improbable factors or events. Statistically speaking, such a resultant situation is even more unlikely to have happened than the individual events could have occurred individually. These theories basically advocate that –
1. The IA speakers preserved their voluminous literature, heritage and religion despite being on the move, even when passing through vast inhabited territories, something that is contrary to norm (with a few exceptions such as that of Polynesians).
2. The IA speakers managed to Aryanize the culture, religion, language of the indigenous population of an area of 3 million sq km., without leaving any literary, archaeological, flimsy and contradictory genetic, anthropological evidence. This is against the norm and very few exceptions exist.
3. The process is said to have been achieved without much violence or use of force. The ‘acculterated’ or ‘conquered’ peoples have no memory of this having happened. This is again against the norm.
4. A culturally inferior people are said to have overwhelmed a more advanced civilization. This is again against the norm.
5. Evidence from Geology and Archaeoastronomy contradicts the soft linguistic evidence.
6. South Asian cattle (zebu) appear around the same time in the Middle East that Aryans supposedly enter South Asia – movements in opposite directions.
Many other reasons could be cited to argue why the Aryanization of much of the Indian subcontinent around 1500 BC is a highly implausible scenario. At least, the existing body of evidence from various fields does not compel us at all to accept such a thing. This does not mean of course that the Indo-European speakers were indigenous to the Indian subcontinent and that this area is the original homeland of IE languages. Again, the existing body of evidence does not compel us to accept such a possibility being real or highly probable.
From what I understood, three important points from the papers are:
It is clear to anyone who read the papers that the ancient DNA doesn't contain Yamnaya DNA, and given the fact that the current Indian population has Yamnaya DNA in significant amount in Upper Castes should only lead to the conclusion that a migration from Yamnaya region into India has occurred after 2500 BCE.
In fact both the papers clearly state it:
From the paper in _Cell_:
"However, a natural route for Indo-European languages to have spread into South Asia is from Eastern Europe via Central Asia in the first half of the 2nd millennium BCE, a chain of transmission that did occur as has been documented in detail with ancient DNA. The fact that the Steppe pastoralist ancestry in South Asia matches that in Bronze Age Eastern Europe (but not Western Europe [de Barros Damgaard et al., 2018, Narasimhan et al., 2019]) provides additional evidence for this theory, as it elegantly explains the shared distinctive features of Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian languages (Ringe et al., 2002)."
From the paper in _Science_
"Our observation of the spread of Central_Steppe_MLBA ancestry into South Asia in the first half of the second millennium BCE provides this evidence, which is particularly notable because it provides a plausible genetic explanation for the linguistic similarities between the Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian subfamilies of Indo-European languages, which despite their vast geographic separation share the “satem” innovation and “ruki” sound laws (62). [...] Steppe ancestry in modern South Asians is primarily from males and disproportionately high in Brahmin and Bhumihar groups."
When both papers clearly state and show pictures of movement of Indo-European speakers in the second millennium BCE into India, why do Indian newspapers report the papers with totally misleading titles?
The distortions of the scientific studies in Indian news media is astounding. I understand these papers are very technical and hard. But I hoped some of the reporters would do the due diligence and at least go through the contents and read the clear conclusions. The press conference by Shinde and Rai was also not encouraging either. While the paper they co-authored clearly states that Yamnaya DNA must have entered after the decline of IVC, how can they obfuscate the facts in the press conference to mislead the media?
That's why I sincerely hope India is developing a world-class research and scholarship culture (with achievements such as the launching of Chandrayaan despite the failure of the lander) so that they can accept and present the scientific discoveries without obfuscations or distortions or propaganda. Great achievements in science and technology will hopefully make Indian feel proud of their current preeminence in the world, so that they don't have to concoct or distort the stories of glory of the bygone era (there is already a tremendous amount of glory in the Indian past which is widely acknowledged, and should make all Indians proud of themselves).
Ā nō bhadrāḥ kratvō yantu viśvataḥ Śubham bhūyāt.
Regards,
Suresh.
This is regarding the paper on the DNA analysis of the IVC era individual. As Suresh Kolichala has said, it appears to me that the paper is essentially saying:
I am not sure why many Indian newspapers say the findings discussed in the paper disprove ancient immigration from the steppes. On the contrary, basing on what this paper says, I think it could be argued that there indeed was an ancient immigration to India from the steppes after the IVC era because modern Indians do have the steppe genes but the IVC individual did not have them.
Coming back to the paper under discussion, since the IVC individual has a smaller contribution of genes from the original settlers of India (the AHG) than what modern residents of the area have, can it be said that the intermixing of the Iranian hunter gatherers and the AHG was in its initial phase in the IVC era and that it progressed and spread to east and south India in the course of time? Could we also say that these Iranian hunter gatherers brought a proto Dravidian with them? That this proto Dravidian slowly spread among the original inhabitants (the AHG) whose language was totally unrelated to Dravidian? Can we say that modern Tamils, whose genetic makeup might mostly be that of the AHG with small contributions from the Iranian Hunter Gatherers and from Steppe, speak a Dravidian language now, just as the Hispanic (whose genetic makeup is mostly native American) now speak Spanish brought from Europe?
Regards,
Radhakrishna Warrier
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I would like Vishvas Vasuki to summarize his position [ = Aryan invaders who formed alpha Brahmana elites in later times came to India after Mature Harappan circa 1900 BCE and brought with them the Vedic religion which then overwhelmed all indigenous cultures in the Indian subcontinent and mixed with them to form Hinduism with the Vedic orthopraxy as the overarching umbrella. Alongside, the native Indians lost all memory of Aryan arrival, lost their languages, place names or even memories of the same all over the region; while the Aryan Brahmanas completely omitted to mention in explicit terms how they overcame the non Aryans century after century. The RV is post 1500 BCE and was composed east of the Hindu Kush. Or the RV is composed largely W of Hindu Kush. The Aryans are originally from Steppe and were nomads. etc etc]?
As a non Brahmana, I just find it silly that only Brahmana Arya Rishis had the vitality to promote their culture even as an elite minority and overwhelm the language, religion etc etc of such a large land mass.
People want to hang their hat on 11 out of place skeletons from an area close to Chitral, and an isolated skeleton in Rakhigarhi when we don't even know if they are typical Harappans, and when we do know that burial was not the norm in IVC.
despite what Tilak, Savarkar, Golwalkar etc believed.
Horse bones are attested at numerous Harappan sites despite what Meadow (who influenced the paper by the Harvard team) might say; and of course, now there is a chariot from Baghpat dated to around 1900 BCE.
So now the hunt is on for the Aryan genes I suppose because they alone make a 'superior pure virile' Brahmana. I am quite content being an Anarya in that case.:-)
याव॑ती॒र्वै दे॒वता॒स् तास् सर्वा॑ वेद॒विदि॑ ब्राह्म॒णे व॑सन्ति॒।
तस्मा॑ ब्राह्म॒णेभ्यो॑ वेद॒विद्भ्यो॑ दि॒वेदि॑वे॒ नम॑स्कुर्या॒न्।
नाश्ली॒लङ्की॑र्तयेद्। ए॒ता ए॒व दे॒वताः॑ प्रीणाति ।
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Irene
Irene
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Dear Sri Vishwas,I can now understand why there was irritation caused.
Many others may have their own correlated models.Thank you for presenting.
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I do wish to let you know that I have absolutely no envy for 'Brahmanas' like you! I am in a much better position in every way in my life. Nor do I fear the allegations of Brahmadvesha. I have really never been that fascinated or awed by Harry Potter's wizard like characters :-)
BTW, so in your model, the Austra-asiatics virile male akshauhinis also launched a military invasion from S E Asia into the Indian subcontinent, right? Or did that sentence belong to the previous paras dealing with Aryan Brahmanas? What caste did the victorious Austra-Asiatic then occupy with the permission of the Brahmanas?
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OIT never was the only "official" game in town. There are other models that posit arrival of IIr languages into India before early Harappan. An extremely thorough displacement in every way during post Harappan times appears really quite a stretch. Anyway, I am not sure if this discussion belongs to this forum.
What is clear however is that the colonial Aryanist invasion paradigms have nine lives.Vishal____________On Monday, September 9, 2019, 07:13:45 AM CDT, विश्वासो वासुकिजः (Vishvas Vasuki) <vishvas...@gmail.com> wrote:Sure, you're welcome (not that it is new or original). As far as this thread is concerned, I just wanted to ensure that OIT isn't the only "official" game in town.
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Apropos this discussion I would like to understand the prayojana and phala of this topic.
I admit that I have no ax to grind one way or the other, but the prayojana and phala do interest me.
I suppose there are some people studying it as intellectual pursuit - as a puzzle if you will - and the studying itself is the prayojana and phala. But real life is more complex. These results are used in political ways.
On the flip side though, I wonder if the grand scheme of the OIT, at least by some people, is the othering of who they consider "non-Indian". Having been on the receiving end of this othering, I certainly wouldn't wish it on anyone.
Ramakrishnan
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Dear Vidwans,Have skeletons been found near the Harrapan sites?
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Darwin's theory of evolution was not based on genetic or archeological studies. It was a result of a close observation of the present living world and the close morphological relation that exist between species of the day.
By basing evolution on archeological o r genetic studies these so called theorists have turned a blind eye towards what is obvious in the present.
For example what happens just to the second or third generation of people who have migrated to the US? Do the language they speak there have any resemblence to their parents language though they may still carry the genetic print of their parents. One can only pity these theorists who have given up on their common sense in the endeavour of inventing new things.
In such circumstances it is hard to believe that the Vedas were imported from across the North West border of present day South Asia.With regards,Achyut Karve.--On Fri, 13 Sep 2019 22:25 Kalicharan Tuvij, <kalich...@gmail.com> wrote:Also,Prehistoric interactions between India and Russia (using the words loosely) should also be researched thoroughly. Lactase persistence (LP), the ability in some adults to digest milk with more ease, in particular has been shown to have been transmitted from Russia (not Iran) to Europe. It is then very likely a result of the transmission of that specific genetic variant (termed C/T*−13910) from India to Russia.Another known outcome of the Indo-Russo-Iranian confluence is the one-way word-loan in Balto-Slavic. "One-way" because Indian mainland was too far away to be influenced.--
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Dear Vidwans,When did the practice of cremation start in Indian Society? Burial is still in vogue among some tribals.Can the practice of cremation not be the reason for not finding skeletal remains of humans In the Deccan?With regards,Achyut Karve.
On Thu, 12 Sep 2019 10:45 विश्वासो वासुकिजः (Vishvas Vasuki), <vishva...@gmail.com> wrote:
On Thu, Sep 12, 2019 at 9:52 AM Achyut Karve <achyu...@gmail.com> wrote:Dear Vidwans,Have skeletons been found near the Harrapan sites?Yes - https://brainly.in/question/6298024 and https://www.harappa.com/content/skeletal-paleopathology-human-remains-cemetery-r37-harappa-excavated-1987-and-1988 seem to have good info.
If not does it not tell us that the practice of cremation was in practice then too?Which other civilizations practiced cremation?With regards,Achyut Karve.
On Thu, 12 Sep 2019 09:22 विश्वासो वासुकिजः (Vishvas Vasuki), <vishva...@gmail.com> wrote:
On Mon, Sep 9, 2019 at 11:30 PM Balasubramanian Ramakrishnan <b.r...@gmail.com> wrote:Apropos this discussion I would like to understand the prayojana and phala of this topic.I admit that I have no ax to grind one way or the other, but the prayojana and phala do interest me.श्लाघ्यमिदं ताटस्थ्यम्। न हि सर्वेण सर्वत्राग्रहः कार्यः। किन्तु वादे प्रवर्तयमाने प्रामाणिकता रक्ष्या - परिश्रमः कार्यः। आत्मवञ्चनं लोकवञ्चनसङ्गतन्तु - "A scientific Challenge to the Aryan Invasion Theory" इति वा, "People want to hang their hat on 11 out of place skeletons" इति वा न ह्यपभाषणीयम्।I suppose there are some people studying it as intellectual pursuit - as a puzzle if you will - and the studying itself is the prayojana and phala. But real life is more complex. These results are used in political ways.तत्र प्रयोजनान्येवम् -- प्रतिपक्षेण स्वीकृतैरेव प्रमाणैस् तेषां दुराग्रहाणाम् प्रतीकारः - "पश्यत, यूयमपि नादिवासिनः!"। वैज्ञानिकप्रमाणतिरस्कारे तु वयं हि हास्यास्पदानि स्याम। तथा ऽस्मद्विरोधिभ्य एव रिक्ता वेदी समर्पितेव भवति।- प्राचीनशास्त्राणाम् यथापरिस्थिति +अवगतिः। यथा - कुतो ननु मानवशास्त्रे शूद्राभ्युदयविरोधः कठोरः? कथमिव पुरा गोमांसभक्षणम् प्रशस्तम्?- अस्मत्पूर्वजानाम् महात्मनाम् अभ्युदयो ज्ञेयः, अस्मत्संस्कृतेर् युवावस्था वीर्यवती ज्ञेया, मध्यकालादारभ्य वयं कथमिवान्यथा वर्तमाना प्राप्तजरावस्था मूढचेतसो गर्त्त इवापताम इति कलनीयम्। स्वदोषाभिज्ञाने तन्मार्जने च शुद्धम् प्रामाणिकं ज्ञानम् उपकरोति। तदर्थम् पुराणानि वर्तन्त एव, तैस् साकन्त्व् आधुनिकेतिहासदृष्टिरपि बहूपकरोति।On the flip side though, I wonder if the grand scheme of the OIT, at least by some people, is the othering of who they consider "non-Indian". Having been on the receiving end of this othering, I certainly wouldn't wish it on anyone.निजपरभेदो मानवावस्थाया अनिवार्यम् अङ्गम्। यतः समाजे विरोधो युद्धम् अपि स्वाभाविकम् - शान्तिरेव विकारः। किञ्च - को भेदभाव उपकारको ऽस्मद् उदयाय, कस्तु हेय इति तु विवेक्तव्यम्। वदन्ति केचित् - "हिन्दुको वा मरून्मत्तो वा प्रेताराधको वा भारतीयश् चेदलम्" इति वदन्तः। केचिदन्ये च - "वयं द्राविडा - यूयं कर्णाटाः, त औदीच्या" इति। वयमन्ये तु जयशीलार्षभारतीयसंस्कृत्यनुकूलताम् परं सञ्चक्ष्महे।
--Ramakrishnan
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Vishvas /विश्वासः
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Thanks for elaborating on your position, that is largely a restatement of the Aryanist invasion paradigm. This is what I have always said of the Witzellian models - that they are just the same old 19th century Colonial Aryanist models with a little overcoat of 'modern discoveries' and politically correct phrases thrown in here and there. But essentially, they remain just that - Colonial Aryanist theories.I do wish to let you know that I have absolutely no envy for 'Brahmanas' like you! I am in a much better position in every way in my life. Nor do I fear the allegations of Brahmadvesha. I have really never been that fascinated or awed by Harry Potter's wizard like characters :-)BTW, so in your model, the Austra-asiatics virile male akshauhinis also launched a military invasion from S E Asia into the Indian subcontinent, right? Or did that sentence belong to the previous paras dealing with Aryan Brahmanas? What caste did the victorious Austra-Asiatic then occupy with the permission of the Brahmanas?Why are the NW rivers Gomal and Harirud mentioned in 'Late' RV instead of in the earlier portions? Is the RV Sarasvati the Helmand, or the Ghaggar-Hakra-Nara? [Or Volga, Amy Darya or Syr Darya]Vishal
Vishal
I think I've made my argument (unabashedly or otherwise). Nothing more to add. LP did originate in India - this isn't yet a fact, or information (or misinformation) - it is an argument. Nuances, well.
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He and a few others (not the rest) are referred to as 'Brahmana Supremacists' on some lists because they believe like modern colonialists that they were a civilizing force for the rest of us.
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What if I make separate categories of Haryana Jats, Rajasthan Jats, UP Jats and then argue that many Shudra clans have the highest MLBA ancestry?
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View the article.. http://flip.it/QF4wUg
View the article + more on Flipboard. http://flip.it/nmj26W
2005-2006. Misrepresentation of Ancient India and Hinduism in American School Textbooks. Pages 72-89 in History Today (Journal of the Indian History and Culture Society, New Delhi), Vol. 7
2005. What is the Aryan Migration Theory. Pages 1-46 in Journal of Interdisciplinary Studies in History and Archaeology, Vol. 2, No. 1.
2005. A Review of Romila Thapar’s ‘Ancient India, a Textbook of History for Middle Schools’, NCERT: New Delhi (1987). In India’s Only Communalist. Ed. by Koenraad Elst. Voice of India (New Delhi)
2004-2005. Misrepresentation and Stereotyping of Hindu Dharma in History Textbooks in India. Pages 61-76 in History Today (Journal of the Indian History and Culture Society, New Delhi), Vol. 5
2004-2005. Review of Michael Witzel’s ‘Ein Fremdling im Rigveda in JIES vol. 31. Pages 221-226 in Puratattva (Bulletin of the Indian Archaeological Society, New Delhi), Vol. 35
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Irene
नमस्ते,With lots of people unabashedly spreading misleading information, one would do well to listen to the population genetics experts hashing it out - https://www.brownpundits.com/2019/09/11/browncast-episode-66-ancient-india-and-dna-with-vagheesh-narasimhan/ . Vagheesh Narasimhan is the lead author of the paper that started this thread.An interesting point from there:- Selection for lactose tolerance in India occurred in the last millennium or two.On Fri, Sep 13, 2019 at 11:40 PM Achyut Karve <achyut...@gmail.com> wrote:Darwin's theory of evolution was not based on genetic or archeological studies. It was a result of a close observation of the present living world and the close morphological relation that exist between species of the day.Observation of close morphological relation also led to the proposition of Lamarckian inheritance (inheritance of acquired characteristics). This was later rejected in favor of Darwin's theory. Furthermore, Darwin's theory have since found support and theoretical basis in genetics.One may campare OIT and AIT with Lamarckian and Dawinian theories.By basing evolution on archeological o r genetic studies these so called theorists have turned a blind eye towards what is obvious in the present.This is a serious misrepresentation since genetic studies closely look at present day genetic composition of geographically and ethnically diverse people.For example what happens just to the second or third generation of people who have migrated to the US? Do the language they speak there have any resemblence to their parents language though they may still carry the genetic print of their parents. One can only pity these theorists who have given up on their common sense in the endeavour of inventing new things.What language did second and third generation of Anglo Saxon people migrating to the US speak? One can only pity these theorists who have given up on their common sense in the endeavour of supporting counter-scientific things.
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Well, for a complete equivalent, if they were speaking English with at most 30% Anglo Saxon genes (presumably in Alabama and KKK circles!) and 70% Native American genes, then we would have an equivalent, no? And that it is indeed the crux of the problem. The original idea was that Aryans came and destroyed everyone and imposed their culture same as Anglo Saxons. Now that there is no proof of any such thing, there is argumentation all around. Not that AIT or AMT is incorrect because of this. Just a comment.
Ramakrishnan
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Unfortunately this does not seem likely in the near future as I am very engaged in community activities teaching children and adults (in addition to my day job, family commitments etc) since 2008.
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But what is clear is that AIT has been used by nefarious political forces in India with disastrous results. That is very clear to me. There is either an underhanded motive among Western scholars or they are incredibly naive.
Characterizing Sri Vishal-ji's position as 'anti-brAhmain-supremacy' and not as 'anti-brAmhin' is deligent.
Opposing Brahmin supremacist attitude is different from hating Brahmins.
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So you are trying to tell me something equivalent of how the casteists in N India say to those of lower castes,"Ahsaan-pharaamosh! Apni aukaat mein rah aur zyaada dimaag mat chalaa") [Ungrateful man, know your place and do not tax your brain on matters beyond your understanding].
Do your realize that your posts on this controversy are exactly the material that editors of publications like 'Dalit Voice' or 'Dalit Freedom Network' like to quote?
Vishal_____________On Saturday, September 14, 2019, 11:00:47 PM CDT, विश्वासो वासुकिजः (Vishvas Vasuki) <vishvas...@gmail.com> wrote:Opposing Brahmin supremacist attitude is different from hating Brahmins.Anyway, this *so-called* 'anti-brAhmain-supremacy' attitude - even if not full fledged brahmin hatred - pretty much amounts to ungratefulness and scorn (besides having having other telling problems such as an inability to face facts).--
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The biggest anti Brahmins are those who liken/compare Brahmins to Spanish Conquistadors ('high European Ancestry'). The latter had massacred, forcibly converted, raped, enslaved, looted Native Americans. I thought this nonsensical comparison was found only in the writings of Witzel (he wrote that Aryan horses = 'Vedic Tanks' = horses of Spaniards) and other Hinduphobic racists, but looks like some among us too have a vishvaas in these kind of things.
Perhaps, the Zeroth Reich was actually in India around 1939 BCE, and it was perhaps worse than the Third Reich in 1939 CE. Oh, but in the former, a yet to be formed 5% minority subdued the majority through peaceful migration using Vedic memes, whereas in the latter the 3% minority was exterminated.
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