Vance is correct that the definition of "publication" was not
well-settled under the 1909 Act, and differed in different circuits.
Some courts did indeed hold that a public display was a "publication,"
a position which, as he notes, is rejected under the 1976 Act. But
certainly a sale or an offer to sell one or more copies (including the
original) to a member of the general public was a publication in any
Circuit (see below).
> The sale of the single exemplar of the work to a single museum strikes
> me as not a good test for publication, unless the work were offered to
> the world and the museum was the successful bidder. Perhaps it's the
> old securities lawyer in me looking at the "public offering" language
> of the Securities Act, but publication for copyright purposes has
> something of the same smack of making the thing available to the
> world (regardless of the number of actual takers) rather than a
> selected and limited audience.
The 1909 case law distinguishes between a "general publication" and a
"limited publication." The former is a sale or offer to sell to a member
of the general public; the latter is a distribution to a select group
for a limited purpose, without the right of further reproduction,
distribution or sale. Only a general publication without notice would
forfeit the copyright in a work. If the work was distributed WITH
notice, however, courts would accept virtually any distribution as a
"publication," since doing so with notice secured a federal copyright.
An unrestricted sale of a painting to a member of the public, or a
museum or gallery, would NOT be a limited publication. A single person
may be a "select" group numerically, but not qualitatively. Unless the
artist could show that there was some sort of restriction on those to
whom he would sell the painting, AND some sort of restriction on what
the buyer could do with the painting, I don't think this would qualify.
[But I would welcome the views of those with more experience under the
1909 Act.]
Since most artists did not use copyright notice, the result was that the
initial sale of the original painting often served to forfeit the U.S.
copyright in the work. [Foreign artists, of course, had their
copyrights restored in the U.S. in 1996, if their works would still
have been under copyright but for the notice and registration
formalities.] But even when the work was published with notice, the
initial sale served to start the duration clock running.
In connection with this point, Amalyah Keshet <ake...@imj.org.il> asks:
>
> Most works of art enter museums (in the case of my museum, almost
> all works) not because the museum purchases them, but because they
> are donated or left to the museum. Your phrase "by virtue of once
> having been sold," is better: they were donated to us, but previous
> to that were sold to that donor. But what if the work is donated by
> the artist him/herself? Does that constitute publication?
Yes. A donation is still "distribution" of a copy (the original counts
as a "copy," which is defined as ANY material object in which the work
is fixed), and any "distribution" is a publication. If the artist
donated the painting with restrictions, however, he or she could try
to argue that it was only a "limited" publication.
I tend to agree with Vance that perhaps an artwork ought not to be
considered "published" until REPRODUCTIONS of it are published.
But that's not how publication was defined under the 1909 Act.
Distribution to a single person (without restrictions) was sufficient.
Tyler T. Ochoa
Associate Professor
Whittier Law School
<toc...@law.whittier.edu>