On 7/15/2012 3:52 PM, Rami Rustom wrote:
> On Jul 10, 2012 12:59 PM, "Jordan Talcot" <
jordan...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> On Jul 9, 2012, at 7:21 AM, David Deutsch wrote:
>>> On 9 Jul 2012, at 3:12pm, Richard Fine wrote:
>>>> On 7/9/2012 2:42 PM, Rami Rustom wrote:
>>>>> Why do people use the term *development* instead of the term *learning*?
>>>>>
>>>>> It seems that they use the term learning for teacher-directed learning, and
>>>>> they use the term development for self-directed learning.
>>>>>
>>>>> So when a baby hasn't yet learned to say his first word as compared to most
>>>>> babies his age, they call that a lack of development.
>>>>>
>>>>> And when a kid hasn't yet learned his times tables, they call that a lack
>>>>> of learning. Or maybe thats wrong. I think they call this development too.
>>>>>
>>>>> So how do they choose when to say development and when to say learning?
>>>> This looks like a question about definitions. Why are you asking?
>>> Perhaps the term 'development' is sometimes favoured because that sounds like an automatic process in which the person concerned isn't an agent. Their creativity, preferences, distinctive ideas etc are supposedly not used; rather, it's just something that just happens to them.
>>>
>>> Similarly, 'teaching' is used to describe something that is supposedly done *to*, rather than *by*, a pupil.
>>>
>>> However, I don't think that the terminology is, even conventionally, always used on that way. People talk about children learning to speak, not being taught to speak or 'developing speech'.
>> I don't think this particular example is right. People often speak of "speech development" or "speech and language development", when talking about young children learning their first language. If you google either term, you will find plenty of sites like this:
http://www.asha.org/public/speech/development/.
>>
>> If you google "learning language", you will mostly find things about learning a second language, or a foreign language (e.g., language programs). "Learning speech" brings up a lot of things about memorizing a speech. It also brings up some things about children learning language, but those seem to mostly be about older children in speech therapy, or people learning English as a second/foreign language.
> So the bucket theory of learning says that during childhood, people
> learn "automatically" without themselves being agents in the learning.
> And they call this development. And when those people are adults, the
> learning isn't automatic, meaning that now they are agents in the
> learning.
Bucket theory of the mind doesn't have adults as agents in the learning
either. Bucket theory says: if the human exposes themselves to the
teacher, and they listen and concentrate on what the teacher is saying,
then they learn. I've not seen anyone suggest that this is different for
adults, other than the rate at which things go in (as you mention below).
> But time is not the relevant factor in learning. The relevant factor
> is knowledge. Learning rate is a function of the current state of
> one's knowledge. So the more knowledge one has, the more he can learn.
No, I think that's backwards. *Which* knowledge you have is much more
important than the quantity of knowledge. A person who thinks that the
best way to learn is to just listen to lectures over and over, won't
learn things as quickly as a person who thinks that the best way to
learn involves experimentation and asking questions.
I say "backwards" rather than "wrong" because you'd expect that the
higher your learning rate, the more knowledge you'll have acquired, so
there will be a correlation between having a lot of knowledge and having
a high learning rate. The causal relationship is the reverse of the one
you described, though.
> The bucket theory says that learning happens best while the person is
> young, suggesting that the learning rate is based on age, rather than
> knowledge.
Yes. I think the popular explanation is stuff about neuroplasticity,
neural pathways being more easily changed, etc. I've never been quite
sure how this is supposed to work, and my guess is that it doesn't...
If a person has a lot of knowledge, but they haven't organised it very
well, then they might find it harder to learn some new idea than a
person with less knowledge, because the new idea will have more
conflicts for them to resolve (because they know more things for it to
conflict with). For example, if they have some abstract idea that
they've applied in a bunch of fields, but they don't really recognise
that that's what they've done, any new ideas that conflict with the
abstract idea will *seem* to conflict with each and every field in a
disconnected way, when in reality the conflict is only in one place.
> On a similar note, I've noticed that a lot of my mistakes in my
> explanations had to do with thinking of dynamic things as a function
> of time [which is not relevant], rather than a function of something
> else [the relevant quantities].
>
> Its ok to think of dynamic things as a function of time so that you
> can know that there might be a correlation. But then that correlation
> should not be used as the relevant idea in an explanation.
> Explanations should use ideas that are functions of relevant
> quantities not irrelevant quantities like time.
Sometimes time is an indirectly relevant quantity, but by referring to
it directly you hide assumptions. For example, saying "the bathtub will
overflow if I leave it filling up for more than 10 minutes" instead of
"the bathtub will overflow if too much water is put into it" hides
assumptions about the rate of flow from the tap being constant, the
drain being properly sealed, there being no other flows of water into
the bathtub, and so on.
- Richard