Controversial but this has been discussed before.
Say I buy a bike for 20K, and next day price drops to 15K. If I sell it, can I get away saying I paid 20K, and with [say] a depreciation of 20%, I want 16K? Nope - buyer will pay NEW price less 20% right?
Similarly, I buy a bike for 20K, and then price goes up to 30K, a buyer might definitely be interested in paying say 20-22K etc. Neither is it unfair.
Finally it all depends on what the market supports, and that is based on the price of a new bike.
It's a bit of an a anomaly currently because of the insane increase in customs duty last year. Otherwise this situation would never arise.
I don't have any idea about this sale, but am just pointing out how a sale would work when the price of the item actually increases.
I think I paid 60K or there abouts for my tourer. Same bike is now being sold here for 1 lakh plus. So, do you think I should mark it at below 60, if I were to sell?