Hi all,
I'll start with the caveat that the answer to my question may come down to "please read the technical reports" or "learn more maths," so apologies if I'm being dense!
I'm puzzling over some (what seems to me at least) strange behavior when dealing with a final graph node being modeled as Poisson vs. negative binomial. These data are plant lifetime fitness data from a common garden experiment. For this simplified example, we're simply interested in understanding the effect of source population Latitude (a continuous predictor) on lifetime fitness (here, the number of fruits produced by the plant).
I've attached data, R code, and an HTML analysis output file.
The aster graph has three nodes (plus root): 1 --> Survival at 4 weeks --> Any Fruits --> Number of Fruits. The first two nodes are Bernoulli. As you can see in the attached files, the final node probably "should" be modeled as zero-truncated negative binomial. However, we will eventually need to incorporate a random effect into these aster models (to deal with the pseudoreplication within source populations), and reaster, as I understand it, cannot be used with negative binomial nodes. So I also tried modeling the final node as zero-truncated Poisson. I thought this may change the estimates and SE's a bit, but perhaps was "worth it" in order to use reaster. (Just FYI, running just ordinary Poisson and NegBinom regressions on the subset of plants that made fruits produced fairly similar estimates, though with quite different SEs.)
However, using Poisson completely changed the relationship between Latitude and fitness in, what seemed to me, a very strange way. Further details in the R code, but to quickly illustrate:
Here are the raw data:
Here are the predictions from an unconditional aster model with the final node as ZT NegBinom:
and here are the predictions from an unconditional aster model with the final node as ZT Poisson:
This second plot seemed strange to me. In trying to figure out what was going on, I tried running the ZT Poisson model as a conditional aster model, which resulted in this:
which obviously seems more "correct."
So my question is, does anyone know what's going on here? Why does the conditional model with final node as ZT Poisson approximate the unconditional model with final node as ZT NegBinom so much more closely than the unconditional/ZT Poisson model? What would be the major drawbacks of using the conditional model instead of the (oft-recommended) unconditional model?
Thanks for any insight!
John