On 14/11/2012 12:31 PM, Jay Herblock wrote:
> On Nov 14, 2:53 pm, David Johnston <
Da...@block.net> wrote:
>> On 11/14/2012 12:23 PM, Jay Herblock wrote:
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>>> On Nov 14, 1:39 pm, David Johnston <
Da...@block.net> wrote:
>>>> On 11/14/2012 2:47 AM, Jay Herblock wrote:
>>>>> On Nov 13, 10:52 pm, David Johnston <
Da...@block.net> wrote:
>>>>>> On 11/13/2012 8:45 PM, Harold Burton wrote:
>>
>>>>>>> In article <k7tu3h$
g9...@dont-email.me>,
>>>>>>> David Johnston <
Da...@block.net> wrote:
>>
>>>>>>>> On 11/13/2012 2:34 AM, Jay Herblock wrote:
>>
>>>>>>>>> ...Which of course, leads me back to my previous question, which was:
>>>>>>>>> Why did the Allies declare war against Germany but make the Soviet
>>>>>>>>> Union an Ally?
>>
>>>>>>>> Because they preferred to fight one war at a time, and the Soviets
>>>>>>>> hadn't violated the Munich pact.
>>
>>>>>>> But still they invaded Poland, same as the Germans.
>>
>>>>>> They had never promised that they wouldn't.
>>
>>>>> Yes they had.
>>>>> "On 17 September the Red Army invaded Poland, violating the 1932
>>>>> Soviet Polish Non-Aggression Pact"
>>
>>>> Sorry. I meant of course that they hadn't made any promises to the
>>>> French and British.
>>
>>> How tootey-fruity of you!
>>> No, the soviets made a promise to the Poles not to attack them.
>>
>> So what?
>>
>>>>>> They had never been given
>>>>>> an ultimatum that the allies would then have to follow through on.
>>
>>>>> And the Allies didn't.
>>>>> Instead they invited the soviet barbarians to become their PARTNERS
>>>>> while leaving the Poles to become Red Army bayonet target dummies.
>>
>>>> The alliance with the Soviets came well after the end of the conquest of
>>>> Poland.
>>
>>> Another lie.
>>> The Allies were already discussing a military alliance with Stalin
>>> BEFORE Stalin invaded and liquidated Poland.
>>
>> Discussing and rejecting.
>