source: http://www.neweconomics.org/publications/21-hours
I don't understand why the author says "This applies across
the board, regardless of whether individuals actually do any paid
work at all. For example,when we talk about the ‘working
week’ ..." What's the relationship between the statement and
the example? Please explain it to me. Thanks a lot.
source: http://www.neweconomics.org/publications/21-hours
This passage is written within the norms of economics (cf.
web site name.) One of the norms of economics is that
the only value reckoned is exchange-value, usually with a
measurable price in money. (Thus mother-love or the thrill
you get from a particular sunset or a piece of music, while
all intrinsically valuable, are transactions economics does
not evaluate, because they have no exchange value.)
This paragraph asserts that everyone's ideas are oriented by
exchange value (wages and prices) including the ideas of the
unemployed or people who have no wage and pay no prices.
(Except for a very few people in tropical countries, this seems
generally true.)
--
Don Phillipson
Carlsbad Springs
(Ottawa, Canada)