On 2013-08-14, Peter T. Daniels <
gram...@verizon.net> wrote:
> On Wednesday, August 14, 2013 6:38:45 AM UTC-4,
arth...@yahoo.com
> wrote:
>> Thank you all very much. On Tuesday, August 13, 2013 5:26:19 AM
>> UTC-7, Whiskers Catwheezel wrote:
>> > On 2013-08-10,
arth...@yahoo.com <
arth...@yahoo.com> wrote:
>
>> > > 1-I appreciate the help you have KINDLY provided and continue to
>> > > provide to me.
>> > >
>> > > 2-I appreciate the help you KINDLY have provided and continue to
>> > > provide to me.
>>
>> > Is this a trick question to see if anyone reacts to the split
>> > infinitive?
>>
>> Rest assured, I do not ask trick questions. I do like to get multiple
>> replies on a question because sometimes different native speakers
>> have different viewpoints on the same issue. But I never ask trick
>> questions.
But you do sometimes ask tricky questions (which is a good thing).
>> I think almost everybody agrees nowadays that split infinitives are
>> OK, so asking a trick question about split infinitives would be
>> particularly daft.
>>
>> More importantly, as far as I can see, there are no split infinitives
>> in my question at all.
>>
>> Maybe your question is a trick question?
If it is, the trick seems to have worked. <grin>
> There are indeed no "split infinitives" in your examples.
What is the term for constructions such as "you have kindly provided"?
I know this isn't an infinitive, but the verb "you have provided" is
nonetheless split by "kindly".
> (Nor is "split infinitive" a rational concept in English grammar: the
> "prohibition" is a fantasy invented by those who figured that, since
> Latin infinitives are a single word (and thus unsplittable), English
> ought also to have something that could be given the same label and
> that would thereby also become unsplittable as well.)
I agree that the concept is not applicable to English. That doesn't
stop people arguing about it, and not only from the "Latin can't so
English mustn't" angle.