It has always annoyed me when someone pluralizes a word by adding
an apostrophe-s (the prime example, "its/it's") so I'm in a bit
of a quandary over this one. Any ideas? Thanks!
Crystal
cw...@computek.net
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Crystal:
Fixin' has a long southern historical background.
The oldest usage that I can personally recall is this:
"I'm fixin' to go to the store."
Meaning: I'm about ready to go to the store.
I heard the above in the 1930's in Birmingham, Alabama (where I was born).
Another expression would be, "I'm going to the store directly."
This usage of *directly* meant anything but *right away*. In fact, it had
an implication of, "...there's no hurry; I'll get around to it."
The expression, "...the fixin's..." would be used like this:
"We're having Christmas dinner with all the fixin's" meant with all the
bells and whistles (as they would say now)--all the "...trimmings (in
Alabama, "...all the trimmin's"), meaning with all of the assorted dishes
that would go along with a full dinner.
I appreciate your sensitivity to the apostrophe question.
Sometimes the apostrophe is used thus: It's--for *it is*.
And sometimes it is used to replace the missing *g* in spoken dialects,
such as * fixin's* for *fixings* and *trimmin's* for *trimmings*.
Whether the possesive was intended is sometimes lost.
If you live in the San Francisco Bay area, you may read Herb Caen's column
in the San Francisco Chronicle. He has his unofficial 'postrophe patrol.
Our job is to look out for apostrophe misuse. And we are tough. So y'all
be careful, now--you heah?
regards, earle
==============
--
..no sig is good sig..
>It has always annoyed me when someone pluralizes a word by adding
>an apostrophe-s (the prime example, "its/it's")
"It's" isn't an example of using an apostrophe-s for pluralising. It's
done to show posession, in a place where all logic says it should be.
But, of course, English isn't logical.
mn...@cam.ac.uk (Mark Baker) writes: ">>>"
cw...@computek.net (Crystal Wood) writes: ">>>>"
[Boy I hope I got all that right]
>>>>It has always annoyed me when someone pluralizes a word by adding
>>>>an apostrophe-s (the prime example, "its/it's")
>>> "It's" isn't an example of using an apostrophe-s for pluralising. It's
>>> done to show posession, in a place where all logic says it should be.
>>> But, of course, English isn't logical.
>>You've answered one mistake with another ... "it's" is an abbreviation
>>for "it is". It is NOT a possessive.
> You've answered a second mistake with a third: "it's" is not an
>abbreviation; it's a contraction of "it is". If it were an abbreviation,
>it would be pronounced "it is", just as "Mr" is pronounced "Mister".
And a third mistake is answered with a fourth, except that Mark Baker's
alleged second mistake isn't a mistake, so this is only the third.
Mark was discussing the example (following Crystal Wood) of the
*mistake* of using "it's" for "its". This is most definitely *not* an
example of incorrectly using an apostrophe-s to denote a
*plural*, as Crystal had said; it is an example of incorrectly using an
apostrophe-s to denote *possessive*, as Mark said.
Dan Luecking
--
luec...@comp.uark.edu | "...today's top mathematicians
Department of Mathematical Sciences | are in fact a group of exciting,
University of Arkansas | dynamic, and glamorous
Fayetteville, Arkansas | individuals." -- Dave Barry