It means fool or nincompoop.
I always figured it was Gaelic, but I once read something that indicated it
might be Romany, though why my family would preserve a Romany word when we
aren't Romany I don't understand.
Anyone else out there ever heard of omadon?
> My mother's family (almost pure Irish, 5 generations in Canada) uses the
> expression omadon (phonetic spelling) or omadon-galoot.
>
> It means fool or nincompoop.
>
> I always figured it was Gaelic,
Collins English Dictionary spells it "omadhaun", defines it as "fool",
and derives it from Irish Gaelic _amadan_.
> but I once read something that indicated it might be Romany, though why
> my family would preserve a Romany word when we aren't Romany I don't
> understand.
Well, Collins doesn't say where the Irish got the word from.
> Anyone else out there ever heard of omadon?
Yes, of course! _Ommadawn_ is the name of an album by Mike Oldfield.
--
mis...@scripps.edu Mark Israel
ron
>> My mother's family (almost pure Irish, 5 generations in Canada) uses the
>> expression omadon (phonetic spelling) or omadon-galoot.
>>
>> It means fool or nincompoop.
>>
>> I always figured it was Gaelic,
>
> Collins English Dictionary spells it "omadhaun", defines it as "fool",
>and derives it from Irish Gaelic _amadan_.
Brings back memories. I didn't pick it from the header - omadon - because
the Gaelic pronunciation is something like ommadawn.
The Collins spelling - omadhaun - is in part "modern" Gaelic, ie the h after
the d signifies a bualte (pron boolcha), which used to be indicated by a dot
over the affected consonant. This often changes pronunciation, so m bualte
is usually pronounced v.
The -aun is a version of a (acute accent) n. The accent in Gaelic is called
a fada (pron fodda) which means "long".
To change threads slightly, Gaelic (or at least Irish Gaelic; I'm unsure
about Scottish Gaelic) has no formal words for "yes" and "no". One is
supposed to answer a question with the verb used by the questioner.
So if Fred says: "Has it stopped raining?" Mary should reply: "It has" or
"It has not".
In practice, the verb "to be" is used (sea = is/yes; ni hea = is not/no).
Are there any other languages that have this odd convention?
Cheers, Terry O'Connor
<cogito ergo, um><toco...@peg.apc.org><ergo I am, I think>
: So if Fred says: "Has it stopped raining?" Mary should reply: "It has" or
: "It has not".
: In practice, the verb "to be" is used (sea = is/yes; ni hea = is not/no).
: Are there any other languages that have this odd convention?
At least a couple. In Chinese, "Ni renshi wo de jiejie ma?" ("Do you know
my [elder] sister?") is answered "Renshi" or "Bu renshi" ("I know" or "I
don't know"). There is an emphatic "shi", which is just the copulative
"to be", that can be used to insist: "Shi, wo renshi" ("YES, I know your
sister!").
Portuguese has "sim" and "na~o", but it's more common to repeat the verb,
preceded by "na~o" for the negative.
--
--------------------------------------------------------------
There is no such thing as bad data, only data from bad homes.
>> My mother's family (almost pure Irish, 5 generations in Canada) uses the
>> expression omadon (phonetic spelling) or omadon-galoot.
>>
>> It means fool or nincompoop.
>>
>> I always figured it was Gaelic,
>
> Collins English Dictionary spells it "omadhaun", defines it as "fool",
>and derives it from Irish Gaelic _amadan_.
Brings back memories. I didn't pick it from the header - omadon - because
the Gaelic pronunciation is something like ommadawn.
The Collins spelling - omadhaun - is in part "modern" Gaelic, ie the h after
the d signifies a bualte (pron boolcha), which used to be indicated by a dot
over the affected consonant. This often changes pronunciation, so m bualte
is usually pronounced v.
The -aun is a version of a (acute accent) n. The accent in Gaelic is called
a fada (pron fodda) which means "long".
To change threads slightly, Gaelic (or at least Irish Gaelic; I'm unsure
about Scottish Gaelic) has no formal words for "yes" and "no". One is
supposed to answer a question with the verb used by the questioner.
So if Fred says: "Has it stopped raining?" Mary should reply: "It has" or
"It has not".
In practice, the verb "to be" is used (sea = is/yes; ni hea = is not/no).
Are there any other languages that have this odd convention?
Cheers, Terry O'Connor
All Celtic languages. And Latin, which explains why the Romance languages
invented three different ways to say "yes".
Pierre
--
Pierre Jelenc If you have the choice between humble and cocky, go with
rc...@panix.com cocky. There's always time to be humble later, once you've
been proven horrendously,irrevocably wrong.
http://www.columbia.edu/~pcj1/ Kinky Friedman