Perhaps it would make more sense in German, as that is the language that
Luther wrote in. Perhaps some of the problems arise from mediocre
translations that must both scan and rhyme. However, I read this, with
scansion and rhyming removed as
He is our helper, prevailng amidst the flood of mortal ills.
Bob
db...@utdallas.edu wrote in article <63ebfo$fgt$2...@news.utdallas.edu>...
> In the hymn, "A Mighty Fortress Is Our God," Martin Luther writes, "our
> helper He amid the flood of mortal ills prevailing." When he says
> "mortal ills" is he saying "deadly ills" like "ills so bad they can
> kill you?" Or does he mean "the ills that mortals experience?"
My guess is that he means the latter, but he could mean the former -- or
even both. Why not? And who can be sure *what* Luther meant at this
distance?
> Furthermore ... why does Luther write that the flood of mortal ills is
> prevailing?
I read it differently. I think it's God who prevails, not the mortal
ills, and the verb was moved to the end of the sentence in the cause of
scansion -- that is, to make the words fit nicely.
> I don't claim to be Luther-literate, but I heard this hymn at least 17
> times over the past weekend (Promise Keepers in Dallas), and this
> linguistic question is sticking in my craw, a burr under my saddle, etc.
> etc. Please help!
The Promise Keepers have had national airtime even in Britain. You're
getting quite a reputation, lads.
Markus Laker.
--
My real address doesn't include a Christian name.
Emailed copies of responses are very much appreciated.
My reading is that 'mortal ills' are the ills that mortals may experience.
I also read 'prevailing' as qualifying 'our mighty helper' rather than
'mortal ills'. Does that make sense to you?
PB