> On Saturday, 1 Aug 2015 6:06 PM -0400, Peter Duncanson [BrE] wrote:
>> The WNYC reporter describing the closure of many Roman Catholic
>> parishes in the Archdiocese of New York said it was part of "the
>> diocese' efforts" to balance its budget: with /z/ at the end of the
>> word to indicate the possessive.
>>
>> I'd understand "the diocese'(s) efforts to balance its budget" to mean
>> "the efforts by the diocese to balance its budget".
>>
>> To me the use of "diocesan" to mean "by (a/the) diocese" seems slightly
>> unnatural.
"Will Parsons" <va...@nodomain.invalid> wrote in message
news:slrnmrqhcu...@anukis.local...
> I think I'd agree. "Diocesan" is an adjective, rather than a
> possessive, and while an adjective of this type may include the notion
> of possession, it's not synonymous with a possessive, and so can't
> simply be substituted for one.
"Unnaturalness" might be arbitrated by statisics. If the word
diocesan turned out the commonest usage in the 20th century,
this would be enough to rule it natural today.
When correcting "the diocese'(s) efforts to balance its budget"
we are not obliged to swap parts of speech one for one like Lego.
Instead of constructive rules (like that) English approves the usual
and accepted (statistically numerous) way of speaking
or writing -- hence (I think) diocesan.
English is not uniformly symmetrical. Most nouns have both
adjectival forms (e.g. episcopal, diocesan) and possessive
forms (episcopal, diocese's) but no rule requires that they
be distinguishable, as in the former of these two cases. We
know some forms come into or go out of use in time. That's life.