"Nathan Sanders" wrote in message
news:sanders-8D499F...@free.teranews.com...
> In article <pOb6s.317562$5A.1...@fx20.am4>,
> "Guy Barry" <
guy....@blueyonder.co.uk> wrote:
> > Nor is there a noun "linguistic".
> Not all morphologically plural nouns have an existing singular form
> (boonies, clothes, gallows, genitals, indoors, news, sunglasses,
> tights, etc.), and some of these have even transitioned to being
> syntactically singular despite their morphology.
From the above list, I only treat "gallows" and "news" as syntactically
singular. (I've never come across "boonies", and only use "indoors" as an
adverb.) My dictionary simply lists "gallows" as a noun without special
comment, but gives "news" as "plural but singular in construction". Until
this moment I had never thought of "news" as plural in any way whatsoever.
> > So, other than the fact that it ends in "-s", what is plural about the
> > word
> > "linguistics"?
> What more do you need? :-)
> "Plural" here, because of the "but singular in construction", refers
> only to the morphology, not to the syntax.
But is that the role of a dictionary definition? You might expect to find a
note about that in the etymology section, but when I'm looking up a word's
grammatical category, I want to know how it's currently used, not the
historic morphological processes that led to its current form. There are
nouns that started out as adjectives (e.g. "general") but I expect to see
them listed as nouns, not "adjective but noun in construction".
And, in any case, do we have any evidence that "linguistics" started out as
a plural? Wasn't it more likely to have been formed by analogy with other
subject names in "-ics"?
> > Note also that the semantics need not match the morphology or syntax,
> > either: "brains/intelligence", "victuals/food", "odds/probability",
> > "guts/courage", "manners/behavior", "thanks/gratitude",
> > "riches/wealth", "naughts-and-crosses/tic-tac-toe", etc. all have both
> > members of each pair referring to the same singular/mass concept
> > (thus, having the same semantics), but they differ in their
> > morpho-syntactic plurality.
True, but those nouns all take plural verbs apart from "noughts and crosses"
(as I spell it), so they're unequivocally plural in both form and
construction. (Incidentally "riches" is an interesting one, since I believe
it's etymologically from French "richesse", so originally a singular.
"Noughts and crosses" is listed in my dictionary as "plural but singular in
construction", but again I would say it functions as a singular.
> Sure, because not all nouns that end in -s (with appropriate voicing)
> are derived from plural morphology (diabetes, lens, glans,
> triceratops, jones 'habit', etc.). Part of a dictionary's job is to
> give morphological and etymological information, too.
Yes, but not in the definition bit. Normally the grammatical category given
is an indication of how the word is actually used. Saying "plural but
singular in construction" is confusing in my opinion because it might be
taken to imply that the word is somehow syntactically plural, which it
isn't. Why not just write "singular"?
--
Guy Barry